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Wednesday, May 16, 2012

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1.          A Passive threat to computer security is-
        (1) Malicious Intent              
(2) Sabotage
(3) Accidental Errors             
(4) Espionage Agents
(5) None of these
2.          ____ allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and its services such as the Web and e-mail.
(1) TCP/IP                                  
(2) Ethernet
(3) WAP                                     
(4) Token ring
(5) None of these

3.          ‘DOS’ floppy disk does not have____.
(1) A Boot Record                  
(2) A File Allocation Table
(3) A Root Directory              
(4) Virtual Memory
(5) BIOS
4.          ‘MICR’ technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to ____.
(1) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
(2) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition
(3) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition
(4) Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition
(5) None of these
5.          All the information collected during database development is stored in a ____.
(1) repository                          
(2) data warehouse
(3) RAD                                      
 (4) CASE
(5) None of these
6.          The ____ component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database.
(1) data extraction                 
(2) end-user query tool
(3) end-user presentation tool
(4) data store                           
(5) None of these
7.          The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone is ____.
(1) Biometrics                         
 (2) Compression
(3) Encryption                          
(4) Ergonomics
(5) None of these
8.          The word FTP stands for-
(1) File Transfer Protocol   
 (2) File Transit Protocol
(3) File Typing Protocol        
(4) File Transfer Protocol
(5) None of these
9.          This ____ tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and provides access to data.
(1) Client                   
(2) Applications/Web server
(3) Enterprise server            
(4) DBA
(5) None of these
10.      A DVD-RAM is similar to a ____, except it has storage capacities up to 5.2 GB.
(1) CD-R                                     
(2) Floppy disk
(3) CD-RW                                 
(4) Hard disk
(5) None of these
11.      All of the following are basic principles of networks, except-
(1) each computer must have a network card
(2) there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices
(3) there must be at least one connecting device
(4) each computer must have software that supports the movement of information
(5) None of these
12.      ____ are used to identify a user who returns to a Website.
(1) Cookies                               
(2) Plug-ins
(3) Scripts                                  
(4) ASPs
(5) None of these
13.      If you wanted to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol would you use?
(1) ARP                                       
(2) RARP
(3) ICMP                                    
(4) PING
(5) PONG
14.      The term, ‘hypertext’ means-
(1) Non-sequential writing 
(2) Hypermedia
(3) Blinking text     
(4) Text with heavy formatting
(5) None of these
15.      Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas?
(1) Cipher                                  
(2) Warded
(3) Device                                  
(4) Tumbler
(5) Type lock
16.      What is the name of protocol used in eliminate loops?
(1) Switching                            
(2) ISL
(3) Frame tagging                  
 (4) Spanning Tree Protocol
(5) None of these
17.      In networking terminology UTP means –
(1) Unshielded Twisted Pair
(2) Ubiquitous Teflon Port
(3) Uniformly Terminating Port
(4) Unshielded T-Connector
(5) None of these
18.      In OSI network architecture, the dialogue control and token management are responsibility of-
(1) Session layer                     
(2) Network layer
(3) Transport layer                 
(4) Data link layer
(5) None of the above
19.      A ‘C’ data structure called a structure is a group of items in which each item is identified by its own identifier, each of which is known as a member of a structure. Member is also known as-
(1) Information                       
(2) Field
(3) Record                                 
(4) Data type
(5) None of these
20.      Multithread means-
(1) Program do more than one thing at a time
(2) More than one program do one thing at a time
(3) Both are correct               
(4) Both are incorrect
(5) None of these
21.      A page fault occurs?
(1) when the page is not in the memory
(2) when the page is in  the memory
(3) when the process enters the blocked state
(4) when the process is in the ready state
(5) None of these
22.      “Each packet contains the full source and destination address.” This statement indicates which of the following?
(1) Virtual Circuit                    
(2) Datagram
(3) Data link                              
(4) FDDI
(5) None of these 
23.      Data bus is-
(1) Unidirectional                   
(2) Bidirectional
(3) Both (1) & (2)                   
 (4) Multidirectional
(5) None of these
24.      Which of the following is a type of ISDN (Integrated Service Digital Network)?
(1) Narrow bank                     
(2) Broad band
(3) Both (1) & (2)                    
(4) Virtual Circuit
(5) None of these 
25.      Which of the following is a browser to view a web page?
(1) Mosaic                                 
(2) Netscape
(3) Internet Explorer           
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
26.      A graph is a collection of-
(1) Row and columns            
(2) Vertices and edges
(3) Equations                           
(4) Identity
(5) None of these
27.      CDMA is used in-
(1) Wireless and local loop
(2) Allocating a wireless channel
(3) Both (1) & (2)                    
(4) Local loop
(5) None of these
28.      Number of arcs incident to a node is called its-
(1) Level                                     
(2) Predecessor
(3) Degree                                                
(4) Successor
(5) None of these
29.      OSPF means-
(1) Open shortest path finite protocol
(2) Open shortest path finite protocol
(3) Open slotted path finite protocol
(4) Open slotted path first protocol
(5) None of these
30.      Binding the same name to multiple operations whose signatures differ in number or types of arguments?
(1) Overloading                       
(2) Origin class
(3) Object model                    
(4) Package
(5) None of these
31.      What is the name of the chip which has more than one processor on it?
(1) Parallel chip                       
(2) Multi-processor chip
(3) Transputer                         
(4) Parallel processor
(5) None of these
32.      In windows-
(1) Docking views may be docked
(2) Docking views may be float
(3) Docking views may be docked or float
(4) All of the above                               
(5) None of these
33.      ____ performs relocations function?
(1) Absolute loader               
(2) Direct linking loader
(3) Relocating loader            
(4) Linkage editor
(5) None of these
34.      A central computer surrounded by one or more satellite computers is called a-
(1) Bus network                      
(2) Ring network
(3) Star network                     
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
35.      Segmentation –
(1) is a memory management scheme that supports user view of memory
(2) logical address space is collection of segments
(3) logical address consists of two tuple < segment-number, offset>.
(4) All of the above                               
(5) None of these 
36.      Which of the following is a major component of the telephone system?
(1) Local loop                           
(2) Trunks
(3) Switching office                               
(4) All of these
(5) None of these 
37.      Function is invoked by-
(1) Function                             
(2) Declaration
(3) Definition                           
(4) Prototype
(5) None of these
38.      The ACCEPT command in SQL?
(1) Creates a customized prompt when accepting user input
(2) Explicitly defines a NUMBER or DATE data type variable
(3) Hides user input for security reasons
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
39.      How many fields are required to represent a header node of a graph?
(1) 3                                             
(2) 2
(3) 4                                             
(4) 5
(5) None of these
40.      Which of the following is not used as a data structure?
(1) Array                                    
(2) Linked list
(3) Graph                                   
(4) Directory
(5) None of these 
41.      Which of the following is an operating system call?
(1) CREATE                                                
(2) LINK
(3) SYSTEM                               
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
42.      In C++, by default, the members of a class are-
(1) Public                                   
(2) Private
(3) Both public and private 
(4) Only Public
(5) None of these
43.      In core banking systems:
(1) Store and forward of transaction is done
(2) Branch server is not required
(3) Local database is not required
(4) Transaction cannot happen from a non-home branch
(5) None of these 
44.      MV command in Unix changes-
(1) Only the directory
(2) Only the directory entry and i-node
(3) Only the i-node number
(4) All of the above                               
(5) None of these
45.      E-Commerce refers to-
(1) Electrical commerce       
(2) Electronic commerce
(3) Evolutionary commerce              
(4) Effective commerce       
(5) None of these
46.      Graphs can be implemented using-
(i) Arrays    (ii) Linked list      (iii) Stack              (iv) Queue
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)                   
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iii)                          
(4) (i) and (iv)
(5) None of these
47.      Thrashing-
(1) Always occur on large computers
(2) is a natural consequence of virtual memory systems
(3) Can always be avoided by swapping
(4) Can be caused by poor paging algorithm
(5) None of these
48.      The process of converting analog signals into digital signals so they can be processed by a receiving computer is referred as-
(1) modulation                        
(2) demodulation
(3) synchronizing                    
(4) digitizing
(5) None of these
49.      The relational database environment has all of the following components except-
(1) Users                                    
(2) Separate files
(3) Database                            
(4) Database administrator
(5) None of these
50.      Primary key-
(1) Denote a candidate key that is chosen by the database designer as the principal means of identifying entities with in an entity set
(2) Attributes names of all primary key are unique
(3) Primary key specification is optional and good idea to specify primary key for each relation
(4) All of the above                              
 (5) None of these
Answers:


1
1
11
4
21
1
31
3
41
4
2
3
12
1
22
2
32
2
42
2
3
5
13
1
23
2
33
3
43
1
4
1
14
2
24
3
34
3
44
1
5
1
15
1
25
4
35
4
45
2
6
2
16
4
26
2
36
4
46
4
7
3
17
3
27
3
37
1
47
4
8
4
18
1
28
3
38
4
48
4
9
2
19
2
29
1
39
1
49
2
10
3
20
1
30
1
40
4
50
4

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1.Which of the following is a private bank in India?
(1) Oriental Bank of Commerce
(2) Corporation Bank
(3) South Indian Bank
(4) Syndicate Bank
(5) Bank of Maharashtra
 
2.What is Rupee depreciation?
(1) Rupee depreciation means that rupee has become less valu¬able with respect to dolllar
(2) Rupee depreciation means dollar has become less valuable than rupee
(3)Rupee depreciation means a situation when value of rupee is same as euro
(4) Rupee depreciation happens when the combined value of dollar and euro is more than rupee
(5)None of these
 
3. Headquarter of ADB is situated in _
(1) Sanghai  
(2) Manila  
(3) Mali
(4) Geneva  
(5)None of these
 
4. CRISIL is a _
(1) Credit rating agency
(2) Employment exchange watchdog
(3) Infrastructure sector guide
(4) Market regulator
(5)None of these
 
5. By Public Sector bank we mean
(1) Government ownership in bank
(2) Capitalist ownership in bank
(3) Private ownership in bank
(4) Both (1)and (3)
(5)None of these
 
6. ______ forms a part of the Interest Rate Policy
(1) Fiscal Policy  
(2) Industrial Policy
(3) Monetary Policy  
(4) Manufacturing Policy  
(5)None of these
 
7. Credit cards are used for -
(1) Cash withdrawals  
(2) Purchase of air tickets  
(3) Purchase of consumable items from retail outlets  
(4) All of these  
(5) None of these
 
8. 13th Finance Commission has been constituted under the Chairmanship of—
(1) Y. S. P. Thorat  
(2) Vijai L. Kelkar
(3) T. S. Vijayan  
(4) Laxmi Narayan
(5) None of these
 
9. SEBI is a—
(1) Statutory body  
(2) Advisory body
(3) Constitutional body  
(4) Non-statutory body  
(5) All of these
 
10. NABARD was established on the recommendation of—
(1) Public Account Committee
(2) Shivaraman Committee
(3) Narsimham Committee
(4) Chelliah Committee
(5) None of these


ANSWERS:
1 3
2 1
3 2
4 1
5 1
6 3
7 4
8 2
9 1
10 2

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Interest rate risk is a type of
(1) Credit risk      
(2) Market risk           
(3) Operational risk     
(4) All the above     
(5) None of these



2. Which one of the following has launched guidebook on standards for exporters?
(1) RBI           
(2) SEBI           
(3) IBA         
(4) UNIDO                   
(5) UNESCO


3. Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
(1) Reserve Bank of India       
(2) State Bank of India     
 (3) ICICI Bank   
 (4) Bank of India
(5) None of these


4. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
(1) Reserve Bank of India       
(2) Imperial Bank of India         
 (3) Bank of India           
 (4) Union Bank of India        
(5) None of these


5. Which sister organization of the World Bank helps private activity in developing countries by financing projects with long-term capital in the form of equity and loans?
(1) Asian Development Bank            
(2) IMF          
(3) International Developmental Association
(4) International Finance Corporation            
(5) None of these


6. Which sister organization of the World Bank provides long term loans at zero interest to the poorest developing countries?
(1) Asian Development Bank            
(2) IMF        
(3) International Developmental Association         
(4) International Finance Corporation       
(5) None of these


7. Who is known as the ‘Father of Economics’?
(1) Adam Smith        
(2) Marshall       
(3) J.M. Keynes                 
(4) Pareto  
(5) None of these


8. Which was the first Indian Bank to introduce credit card?
(1) State Bank of India         
(2) Central Bank of India      
(3) Union Bank of India        
(4) ICICI       
(5) None of these


9. What does devaluation of a currency mean?
(1) decrease in the internal value of money
(2) decrease in the external value of money 
(3) decrease both in the external and internal values of money
(4) increase both in the external and internal values of money
(5) None of these


10. Which of the following is known as plastic money?
(1) bearer cheques      
(2) credit cards      
(3) demand drafts      
(4) gift cheques    
(5) None of these


11. The twelfth ‘Five Year Plan’ of India is for the five years ranging from-
(1) 2009-2014        
(2) 2008 -2013        
 (3) 2007-2012        
(4) 2012-2017        
(5) 2010-2015


12. DSCR indicates the ability of a company to-
(1) Meet its current liabilities       
(2) Service its share holders      
(3) Meet its long term debt obligations       
(4) Raise further capital      
(5) None of these


13. An IPO is-
(1) Initial Price Offered by private limited company to its share holders.
(2) An offer by an unlisted company for sale of its shares for the first time to the public.
(3) Used to increase the share capital of an unlisted company
(4) A book building process
(5) None of these


14. A decreasing current ratio indicates-
(1) A stable liquidity        
(2) An increasing liquidity     
 (3) A strained liquidity   
 (4) satisfactory current solvency      
(5) None of these


15. SEBI has been imposed a restriction on money flow in equity through ‘P-notes’. What is   the full form of ‘P-notes’?
(1) permanent notes          
(2) purchase notes     
 (3) participatory notes        
(4) private notes       
(5) None of these


Answers
1-2, 2-4, 3-2, 4-2, 5-4, 6-3, 7-1, 8-2, 9-2, 10-2, 11-4, 12-3, 13-2, 14-5, 15-3

Tuesday, May 15, 2012

UCO Bank Recruitment of Clerks


Uco Bank invites application for recruitment to the post of Clerks from Indian citizens who have taken the Common Written Examination for Clerical cadre conducted by IBPS in 2011.
Name of the Post & Number of Vacancies in UCO Bank
Clerks: 1000 vacancies


Important Dates for recruitment in UCO Bank
  • Opening date for online registration/ payment of application fee: 16 May 2012
  • Closing date for online registration/ payment of application fee: 2 June 2012
Eligibility Criteria for recruitment in UCO Bank
Educational Qualification (as on 1 August 2011)
  • Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government. OR
  • A pass with 50% marks in Higher Secondary Examination of 10+2 (10+2+3 pattern)/ 11th Std. (11+1+3 pattern) or Intermediate/ Pre-University (SC/ST/OBC/EXS & PWD candidates pass only) OR
  • A pass with 60% marks in the aggregate in Matriculation/ SSC/ (old pattern)/ SSLC/ 10th Std. Examination (10+2+3 pattern) or equivalent.(SC/ ST/ OBC/ EXS & PWD candidates passed with 50% marks in aggregate)
Computer Knowledge/ Qualifications: Candidates should have a Certificate about working knowledge in Computer.
Proficiency in Official Language: Candidate should have proficiency in the Official  Language of the State for which he/ she has applied.
Essential Requirement
  • IBPS Score obtained in CWE for Clerks 2011-12
  • Candidates should have appeared in CWE from a centre in a State for the vacancies he/ she wishes to apply.
Age Limit (as on 1 August 2011): Minimum 18 years, Maximum 28 years
Pay Scale: Rs 7200-400/3-8400-500/3-9900-600/4-12300-700/7-17200-1300/1-18500-800/ 1-19300. DA, HRA, CCA, Graduation Pay, Medical, LFC, Terminal Benefits, other allowances etc. will be paid as per prevailing rules in the Bank depending upon place of posting.
Selection Procedure for recruitment in UCO Bank: Selection for the post of Clerk will be based on the Total Weighted Standard Score in the Common Written Examination conducted by IBPS in 2011 and marks scored in the Interview (75 marks).
Depending on the number of vacancies, the Bank reserves the right to call only those candidates who have sufficiently high IBPS score in Common Written Examination for Interview.
The minimum qualifying marks for the interview would be 40% for General Category and 35% for Reserved Category. Candidate should have proficiency in the Official language of the State for which he/ she has applied.
There may be some questions in the local language at the time of interview.
How to Apply for recruitment in UCO Bank: Candidates need to apply online on the bank's website http://recruitment.ucobank.com/job_offers.htm
Application Fee: Fee for SC/ ST/ PWD/ Ex- Servicemen category candidates is Rs 20 and fee for other category students is Rs 100.
The challan should be filled in BLOCK LETTERS. Application fee has to be paid through Fee Payment Challan at any of UCO Bank branches in cash. The fee needs to be paid in CBS Account Number and branch (as mentioned in Challan form) in the name & style of "UCO BANK CLERICAL CADRE RECRUITMENT PROJECT-2012".
Obtain the applicant's Copy of Counterfoil of the Application Fee Payment Challan duly receipted by the Bank with (a) Branch Name (b) Transaction ID/ Scroll Number (c) Date of Deposit & Amount filled by the Branch Official.
Apply online by re-visiting the Recruitment link appropriate places. Fill in all other required details therein and click on the "SUBMIT" button at the end of the Online Application form. Original counterfoil of the fee payment challan will have to be submitted with call letter at the time of interview or otherwise they will be disqualified.
The Application printout along with the fee payment receipt and required copies of documents should be kept ready for submission, if shortlisted for Interview.
For more information, please CLICK HERE

Wednesday, May 9, 2012

Central Bank of India Probationary Officers Recruitment


Central Bank of India
Recruitment & Promotions Division, Human Resource Central Office,
Chander Mukhi, Nariman Point, Mumbai – 400021
   
Central Bank of India, a leading Public Sector Bank, invites Online applications from Indian Citizens for appointment, from qualified candidates who hold a valid score card issued by IBPS, for recruitment to the Post of Probationary Officer. :

  • Probationary Officer (PO) : 1000 posts (UR-418, OBC-223, SC-124, ST-235) (PH-30) in JMG-I Scale Rs.14500-25500, Age : 20-30 years as on 01/07/2011, Revised Qualification : Valid IBPS score obtained in Common Written Examination minimum 160 for General Category, 155 for OBC Category,  150 for SC Category and 130 for ST Category. 
Application Fee : RS. 250/- for General & OBC Category Candidates only and Rs. 50/- for others as intimation charges at any Central Bank of India Branches in India by cash only thru a payment challan.


How to Apply : Apply  Online at Central Bank website from 11/05/2012 to 25/05/2012 only.

Details as available at https://www.centralbankofindia.co.in/upload/Final%20Adv.pdf and Please visit Career section of Central Bank of India website  at  https://www.centralbankofindia.co.in for details and online submission of application from 11/05/2012 onwards.

Tuesday, May 1, 2012

IBPS CWE Specialist Officers Result

The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has announced the results of Common Written Exam (CWE) for recruitment of Specialist Officers in Public Sector Banks in India.

Around 3 lakh candidates who have appeared for the exam conducted on Match 11, 2012 and only 16, 268 candidates have successfully qualified. The specialist streams for which the exams were conducted include law, IT, agriculture, marketing, rajbhasha, etc.

The pass percentage of successful candidates at a little over 5 per cent of total candidates compares relatively poorly with the other two exams conducted by IBPS, while in PO the percentage were 10 and in clerk it was 17.
It must  be mentioned that the number of specialist positions available in public sector banks is also relatively lower. Successful candidates in this exam may have to compete for about 4,000 odd specialist vacancies.


Post Registered Appeared Qualified
IT officer scale 1 194755 151058 4394
Agriculture field officer scale 1 20054 14217 1556
Rajbhasha Adhikari Scale 1 2306 1506 193
Law officer Scale 1 16445 11685 562
Technical Officer Scale 1 56633 41760 2332
HR/ Personnel officer Scale 1 29617 21491 1130
Marketing Officer Scale 1 46468 34956 5775
IT officer Scale 2 24618 17766 157

Click here To view your CWE Specialist Result Status