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Tuesday, January 31, 2012

ANDHRA BANK RECRUITMENT OF PROBATIONARY OFFICERS – BACK LOG VACANCIES OF OBC CATEGORY


Andhra Bank invites applications for the post of Probationary Officers from Indian citizens who belongs to
OBC category and who have taken the Common Written Examination for Probationary Officers/
Management Trainees conducted by IBPS in 2011-12 and have a valid Score card issued by IBPS.

Only Indian citizens who belong to OBC category and who have taken the Common Written Examination for Probationary Officers / Management Trainees conducted by IBPS in 2011-12 and have a valid Score card issued by IBPS can apply.
IMPORTANT DATES FOR FEE PAYMENT AND ONLINE APPLICATION:
START DATE: 23.01.2012
LAST DATE: 14.02.2012.
Click Here for Detailed ADVERTISEMENT
Click Here for Downloading FEE PAYMENT CHALLAN
Click Here FOR APPLYING ONLINE


Thursday, January 26, 2012

Punjab National Bank Management Trainee Recruitment

 
Punjab National Bank (PNB)
(A Government of India Undertaking)
Head Office: 7,Bhikaiji Cama Place, New Delhi-110066


Punjab National Bank (PNB), a leading public sector bank invites Online application from Indian citizens for the  following 775 posts of  Management Trainees for those candidates who have valid CWE score card (minimum 138 for General, 125 for OBC and 113 for SC/ST/PWD) :
  • Management Trainee : 775 posts (UR-392, SC-116, ST-58, OBC-209) (PWD-24) in JMG-I Scale Rs.14500-25700,  Age : 20-28 years,
 Application Fee :  Rs.200 /- (Rs.50/- for SC/ST/PWD) to be paid cash in any branch of PNB.

How to Apply : Apply Online only at Punjab National Bank website from 30/01/2012 to 13/02/2012.

Kindly visit  https://www.pnbindia.in/En/ui/Recruitment.aspx for Detailed information, payment voucher and a  link to online submission of Application from will be available from 30/01/2012.

CANARA BANK PROBATIONARY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT


Canara Bank jobs at http://sarkari-naukri.blogspot.comCanara Bank

(A Government of India Undertaking)
Recruitment Cell, Personnel Wing
Head Office (Annexe), 14, Naveen Complex, M G Road, Bangalore – 560001
Recruitment of Probationary Officers (PO) - 2012

Canara Bank, a leading Public Sector Bank, invites Online applications from Indian Citizens for appointment of  following Probationary Officers only from the candidates who have valid CWE score card :  
  • Probationary Officer (PO) : 2000 posts in JMG-I scale Rs.14500-25700/-

How to Apply : Apply Online, submission of Online application through Canal Bank website from 30/01/2012 to 15/02/2012 only.   

Please visit http://canarabank.com/English/Scripts/RPO-1-2012.aspx for more details and online submission of application from 30/01/2012 onwards.

Pragathi Gramin Bank Recruitment of Officer JMG 2012

Pragathi Gramin Bank is a leading Regional Rural Bank in Karnataka, sponsored by Canara Bank.The Bank has total 368 branches spread over Bellary, Raichur, Koppal, Chitradurga, Shimoga and  Chikkaballapur districts, 7 Regional Offices and Head Office at Bellary. Bank invites online applications from eligible candidates for the post of Officer Junior Management Grade (Scale-I).
Name of the Post and Number of Vacancies
Officer JMG Scale- I (Group A): 97 vacancies
Important Dates
  • Starting date of online registration: 12 January 2012
  • Last date for on line registration: 10 February 2012
  • Proposed date of written examination: 18 March 2012
  • Dates for downloading Pre-Examination Training Call Letter: 20 February 2012 to 25 February 2012
  • Dates for downloading Written Test Call Letter: 5 March 2012 to 16 March 2012

Eligibility Criteria
Educational Qualification
  • Bachelor degree of a recognised University in any discipline or its equivalent. Preference will be given to the candidates having degree in Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Animal Husbandry, Veterinary Science, Agricultural Engineering, Pisciculture, Agricultural Marketing and Cooperation, Information Technology, Management, Law, Economics and Accountancy.
  • Proficiency in Kannada language (Only candidates knowing Kannada to read, write and speak need apply).
  • Desirable: Knowledge of computer skills.
Age Limit (as on 1 December 2011): Minimum 18 years; Maximum 28 years

Pay Scale: Rs 14500-600/7-18700-700/2-20100-800/7-25700
Application Fee: Application fee is Rs 350 for General and OBC category candidates and fee for SC/ ST/ PWD/ Ex-servicemen candidates is Rs 50.
Application fees need to be paid in the form of challan available on the website. Download challan form and make payment in any branch of Canara Bank for credit of current account No. 0506201003871 maintained with Canara Bank, Main branch, Bellary (DP Code 506) and should keep the ‘Candidate's Copy' of the Challan with receipt of fees duly acknowledged thereon, with them for producing the same at the time of written test along with the latest passport size photograph pasted on the Challan and signed across by the candidate.
Selection Procedure: The eligible candidates will be called for written test and interview.
How to Apply
All eligible candidates should apply on-line through the link provided on the bank's website www.pgbankho.in After applying on-line, the candidates should take a print out of the system generated on-line application form and retain it for future reference. They should not send this print out to the Bank, as they will have to submit it at the time of interview.
For more information please CLICK HERE

Himachal Gramin Bank Recruitment for Various Posts 2012

Himachal Gramin Bank is sponsored by Punjab National Bank with head office in Mandi (Himachal Pradesh). The Bank is incorporated as a Scheduled Bank in Schedule - II of Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. It invites applications from Indian Citizens for the following posts.
Name of the Post and Number of Vacancies
  • Officer MM Scale-II: 4 vacancies
  • Officer JM Scale-I: 51 vacancies
  • Office Assistants (Multipurpose): 62 vacancies
Important Dates
  • Starting date of online registration: 17 January 2012
  • Last date for online registration: 16 February 2012
  • Proposed date of written examination (Officer Scale-II & I): 18 March 2012
  • Proposed date of written examination (Office Assistants): 25 March 2012
  • Dates for downloading Pre-Examination Training Call Letter (Officer Scale II & I): 27 February 2012 to 3 March 2012
  • Dates for downloading Pre-Examination Training Call Letter (Office Assistant): 5 March 2012 to 10 March 2012
  • Dates for downloading Written Test Call Letter (Officer Scale II & I): 6 March 2012 to 16 March 2012
  • Dates for downloading Written Test Call Letter (Office Assistant): 12 March 2012 to 23 March 2012
Eligibility Criteria
Educational qualification
  • Officer Scale II
    a) IT Officer: Degree from a recognised University in Electronics/ Communication/ Computer Science/ Information Technology or its equivalent with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate. Desirable: Certificate in ASP, PHP, C++, Java, VB, VC, OCP etc. Experience: One year

    b) Treasury Manager: Candidate should be a Chartered Accountant or MBA in Finance from a Reputed Institute. Experience: One Year

    c) Manager Personnel: MBA in HR or Master Degree in Social Work (Personnel Management & Labour Law). Preference will be given to the candidates having degree in Law. Two Years Experience in Personnel Management.
    d) Law Officer: Degree from a Recognized University in Law or its equivalent with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate. Experience: Two years as an Advocate or should have worked as Law Officer in Banks or Financial Institutions for a period not less than two years.
  • Officer Scale I: Degree from a recognized university in any discipline or its equivalent. Preference will be given to the candidates having degree in Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Animal Husbandry, Veterinary Science, Agricultural Engineering, Pisciculture, Agricultural Marketing and Cooperation, Information Technology, Management, Law, Economics and Accountancy. Proficiency in local language i.e. Hindi; Computer knowledge or awareness will be an added qualification.
  • Office Assistant: Degree from a recognized university in any discipline or its equivalent. Proficiency in local language i.e. Hindi. Desirable: Knowledge of Computer skills.
Age Limit (as on 1 November 2011)
  • Officer Scale II: Above 21 years but below 32 years
  • Officer Scale I: Above 18 years but below 28 years
  • Office Assistant: Between 18 years and 28 years
Pay Scale
  • Pay Scale for Officer MM Scale-II: Rs 19400-700/1-20100-800/10-28100; total emoluments Rs 32330
  • Pay Scale for JM Scale-I: Rs 14,500- 600/7-18700- 700/2- 20100- 800/7- 25700; total emoluments Rs 24164
  • Pay Scale for Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Clerks: 7200-400/3-8400-500/3-9900-600/4-12300- 700/7-17200-1300/1-18500-800/1-19300; total emoluments Rs 13372
Application Fee: Application fee is Rs 500 for General and OBC category candidates and fee for SC/ ST/ PWD/ Ex-servicemen candidates is Rs 100.
Application fee needs to be paid in the form of challan available on bank's website for all the posts. Challan No. 1 for Himachal Gramin Bank/ Punjab National Bank is for Officer (Scale II & I) and Challan No. 2 is for Himachal Gramin Bank/ Punjab National Bank (Office Assistant). Candidates depositing fees in Punjab National Bank and Himachal Gramin Bank have to bear ‘Intersol Transaction Charges' minimum Rs 25 in addition to fees given above.
Selection Procedure: The eligible candidates will be called for written test and interview.
How to Apply
All eligible candidates should apply on-line through the link provided on the bank's website http://himachalgraminbank.org/ After applying on-line, the candidates should take a print out of the system generated on-line application form and retain it for future reference. They should not send this print out to the Bank, which they will have to submit at the time of interview. Candidates have to submit Original Fee Payment Challan along with Downloaded Call Letter while attending the written test, without which they will not be allowed to take up the examination.
For more information please visit http://himachalgraminbank.org/advt-1.pdf

Bank of India Recruitment of Probationary Officers 2012

Bank of India was founded on 7th September, 1906 by a group of eminent businessmen from Mumbai and was nationalised in July 1969. The Bank has 3752 branches in India spread over all states/ union territories including specialized branches that are controlled through 50 Zonal Offices. It invites application from eligible candidates for recruitment of Probationary Officers.
Name of the Post & Number of Vacancies
Probationary Officer: 1800 vacancies
Important Dates
  • Opening date for online registration: 19 January 2012
  • Closing date for online registration: 31 January 2012
  • Tentative period of interview: February/ March 2012
Eligibility Criteria
Educational Qualification: Graduate with minimum 60% marks in AGGREGATE from UGC recognized University.
IBPS Score Requirement: Total Weighted Standard Score (TWS) will be minimum 130 for General Category and 117 for Reserved Category (ie SC/ ST/ OBC/ PWD)
Age Limit (as on 1 July 2011): Minimum 21 years, Maximum 30 years
Application Fee: No fee will be charged from SC/ ST/ PWD/ Ex- Servicemen candidates and fee for other category students is Rs 200.
The fees need to be paid in cash in the form of challan available on the bank's website at any of the branches of Bank of India.
Pay Scale: Rs 14500 - 600/7-18700-700/2-20100-800/7-25700 plus DA, HRA, CCA as per rules in force from time to time.
Selection Procedure: The candidates will be selected through a Personal Interview (100 marks). Minimum qualifying marks in interview are 50% for General Category and 45% for SC/ ST/ OBC/ PWD category.
The bank reserves the right to call only those candidates who have sufficiently high IBPS score in CWE for interview. TWS score specified above and rank sufficiently high in the order of merit shall be called for a Personal interview in the ratio of 1:3. The candidates should have valid score card issued by IBPS.
Detailed BOI Notice
How to Apply: Candidates need to apply online on the bank's website http://www.bankofindia.com/
For more information, please visit http://www.bankofindia.com/career.aspx

Wednesday, January 25, 2012

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. The Govt of India has decided to declare which of the following rivers a National River?
a) Brahmaputra
b)
Yamuna
c)
Ganga 
d)
Kaveri    
e)
None of these

2. Who amongst the folIowing economists gave the concept of "economies of scale", which says "many goods and services can be produced more cheaply in long series"?
a) Edward C Prescott
b)
Amartya Sen
c)
Gary S Becker
d)
Edmund S Phelps
e)
Paul Krugman

3. Very often we read in newspapers/magazines about "Sovereign Wealth Funds". Which of the following is/ are the correct description of the same?
(A) These are the funds or the reserves of a government or central bank of a country which are invested further to earn profitable returns.
(B) These are the funds which were accumulated by some people over the years but were not put in active circulation as they retain them as Black Money for several years.
(C) The funds which are created to be used as relief funds or bailout packages are known as sovereign funds.
a) Both B & Conly
b)
Only B
c)
Only C
d)
Only A
e)
None of these

4. Very often we read about Special economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. What is the purpose of promoting SEZs in India?
(A) They are established to promote exports.
(B) They are established to attract investments from foreign countries.
(C) They are established to help the poorest of the poor in India as the activities of these zones are reserved only forthe poors and those living below poverty line.
a) Only A    
b)
Only B
c)
Only C
d)
Both A & B only
e)
None of these

5. The ratio of the Cash Reserves that the banks are required to keep with the RBI is known as
a) Liquidity Ratio    
b)
SLR
c)
CRR    
d)
Net Demand & Time Liability
e)
None of these

6. The-Govt ofIndia in order to provide some relief to the exporters announced a relief-package of Rs
a) 1000 cr
b)
2500 cr
c)
4000 cr    
d)
5000 cr
e)
7000 cr

7. The availability of cash and other cash-like marketable instruments that are useful in purchases and investments are commonly known as
a) Cash crunch
b)
Liquidity
c)
Credit
d)
Marketability
e)
None of these

8. The White Tiger is a book written by
a) Amitav Ghosh    
b)
Arundhati Roy
c)
VS Naipaul    
d)
Kiran Desai
e)
Aravind Adiga

9. Besides USA and France, India has a Civil Nuclear Deal with
a) Britain    
b)
Russia
c)
Germany 
d)
Canada
e)
Australia

10. Jnanpith Award is given for excellence in the field of
a) Music    
b)
Literature    
c)
Sports
d)
Films    
e)
Social Services

11. As per newspaper reports, India's trade gap has been showing a negative growth for the last few months. "Trade Gap" means what?
a) Gap between total GDP and total consumption
b)
Gap between total imports and total exports
c)
Gap between available liquidity and expected demand in next five months
d)
Gap between budgeted revenue collection and actual collection of the same
e)
None of these

12. 'Equity schemes managed strong NAV gains, which, boost their assets' was a news in some financial newspapers. What is the full form of the term NAVas used in above head lines?
a) Nil Accounting Variation
b)
Net Accounting Venture
c)
Net Asset Value
d)
New Asset Venture
e)
None of these

13. As per reports published in various newspapers, mutual fund companies showed 94 per cent growth in their total profits during 2009-10. This means the profits earned by these companies were 94 per cent
a) in their total investments they made collectively during the year
b)
more than their profits during previous year
c)
of the total capital of the company
d)
less than the total expenditure of the companies
e)
None of these

14. As per the reports published in some major news papers "ADAG companies" made good profits during the year. ADAG companies are popularly known as
a) Companies owned by Tata Group
b)
Aditya Birla Companies
c)
Reliance Companies
d)
Companies owned by Aptech
e)
None of these

15. "Mutual Funds reported exceptional performance in 2009-10" was the news in major financial news papers recently.  What is a mutual fund?
A. A type of collective investment scheme that pools money from many investors and invests it in stocks, bonds or other money market instruments.
B. It is a subsidiary of a bank or financial company created specially to raise money to be invested in a particular industry, ie housing or insurance etc. The money raised thus cannot be invested anywhere else.
C. When several banks and financial companies come together and create a common pool of money to fund mega infrastructural project like bridges, roads, power plants etc, the common pool is known as Mutual Fund.
a) Only A
b)
Only B
c)
Only C
d)
All A, B & C
e)
None of these

16. We very frequently read about Europe's sovereign debt crisis these days. Which of the following statements/is/are true about the same?
A. In early 2010 the Euro crisis developed in some countries like Greece, Spain and Portugal.
B. This created a credit default swap between the countries of the European Union ..
C. SAARC countries have offered some assistance to some of the severely affected countries like Portugal, Spain and Greece.
a) Only A
b)
Only B
c)
OnlyA & B
d)
All A, B & C
e)
None of these

17. As per the announcement made by the RBI, some Stock Exchanges in India are allowed to introduce Plain Vanilla Currency Options. The term Plain Vanilla Currency Options is associated with which of the following activities/operations?
a) Dollar-Rupee Exchange Rate
b)
Floating of Commercial Papers
c)
Launch of new mutual funds
d)
Deciding the opening price of a share on a particular" business day
e)
None of these

18. The process of "Artificial Application of Water to the soil usually for assisting in growing crops" is technically known as
a) water harvesting
b)
irrigation
c)
water recharging
d)
percolation
e)
none of these

19. Waste Water generates which of the following gases. which is more powerful and dangerous than C02?
a) Nitrogen    
b)
Sulphur dioxide
c)
Hydrogen
d)
Methane
e)
None ofthese

20. Which of the following days was observed as World Water Day 2010?
a) 20th June
b)
22nd July
c)
22nd March
d)
20th May
e)
None of these

21. "Indira Gandhi Canal", which is around 450 km long, provides irrigation facility mainly to which of the following states?
a) Punjab
b)
Haryana
c)
Madhya Pradesh
d)
Gujarat
e)
Rajasthan

22. Who amongst the following is the director of the popular Hindi film "OyeLucky ! Lucky Oye"?
a) Mani Ratnam    
b)
David Dhavan
c)
Dibakar Banerjee    
d)
R Balakrishnan
e)
None of these

23. Which of the following is NOT a missile developed by the Defence Research and Development. Organisation (DRDO) ?
a) Shaurya
b)
Pinaka
c)
Brahmos
d)
Agni    
e)
Nag

24. Which ofthe following metals is used for generation of Nuclear Energy by most of the Nuclear Power Plants?
a) Zinc    
b)
Platinum    
c)
Uranium
d)
Nickel    
e)
None of these

25. Indus Water Treaty is a pact on' sharing of river water between India and
a) Bangladesh    
b)
Pakistan
c)
Nepal
d)
Afghanistan
e)
Myanmar

26. Which of the following is/are considered a Renewable Source of Energy?
A. Wind Energy
B. Solar Energy
C. Nuclear Energy
a) OnlyA  
b)
OnlyB
c)
OnlyC
d)
Only A & B
e)
All A, B' & C

27. Mrs. Pratibha Patil is the _______the President of India 
a) 10th President of India
b)
11th President of India
c)
12th President of India
d)
1st President of India
e)
15th President of India

28. How many intertwined rings are shown in the Olympic Flag used these days in the games?
a) Five
b)
Six   
c)
Seven
d)
Three
e)
None of these

29. India's 'Look East' trade policy is designed to help particularly members of which of the following group of nations?
a) SAARC    
b)
ASEAN
c)
WTO
d)
NAT
e)
EU

30. Which of the following countries has signed a 22-Point Agreement with Madhesi People's Right Forum (MPRF)?
a) China    
b)
Nepal    
c)
India
d)
Bangladesh    
e)
Myanmar

31. 'Brahmos' is designed to be used by which of the following?
a) Indian Navy
b)
Indian Army
c)
Indian Air Force
d)
Border Security Force
e)
All of these

32. Which of the following agencies/organisations is setting up India's first Natural Resource Data Centre in Kolkata?
a) RBI 
b)
SEBI
c)
NABARD
d)
S~C    
e)
BARC

33. The Finance Minister ofIndia recently made a mention that Infrastructure Development in India should be done on PPP model only. What is the full form of'PPP'?
a) Purchasing Power Parity
b)
Public Private Partnership
c)
Purchase Produce Provide
d)
People's Programme & Priority
e)
None of these

34. The Global Non-Violence Day was observed on which of the following days?
a) 15th August
b)
14th November
c)
19th September
d)
2nd October
e)
30th January

35. The period for 11 th Five Year Plan is
a) 2005-10
b)
2006-11    
c)
2007-12
d)
2008-13    
e)
None of these

36. Who amongst the following has played the main/lead role in the film Chak De India?
a) Abhishek Bachchan    
b)
Salman Khan
c)
Aamir Khan    
d)
Shah Rukh Khan
e)
None of these

37. 'Ranji Trophy' is associated with the game of
a) Hockey    
b)
Football
c)
Badminton
d)
Cricket
e)
Tennis

38. Which ofthe following awards is given for excellence in literary work?
a) Bharat Ratna
b)
Shanti Swamp Bhatnagar Award
c)
DronacharyaAward
d)
Arjuna Award
e)
Pulitzer Prize

39. Roger Federer, who won the US Open 2007 Tennis Championship, is a citizen of
a) Belgium
b)
France
c)
Russia
d)
USA    
e)
Switzerland

40. Which of the following awards is NOT a 'Gallantry I Award'?
a) Mahavir Chakra    
b)
Vir Chakra
c)
Vishista Sewa Medal
d)
Ashok Chakra
e)
Saraswati Saminan

41. As per the to Commerce Ministry data released on 2 January 2012, India’s exports recorded their slowest pace of growth in two years in November 2011. What was the per centage of growth recorded?
a) 4.2%
b)
3.8%
c)
2.2%
d)
0.94%

42. The capital market regulator SEBI on 3 January 2012 allowed auctioning of securities through stock exchanges and introduced a new method for institutional placement of stocks. Which of the following facts related to the above statement is/are not true?
1. Under the institutional placement programme (IPP), shares can be sold only to qualified institutional buyers.
2. There shall be at least 25 allottees in every IPP issuance. No single investor shall receive allotment for more than 25% of the offer size
3. The IPP method can be used to increase public holding by 10% and could be offered to only qualified institutional buyers with 25% being reserved for mutual funds and insurance companies
4. Under the IPP, companies will have to announce the ratio of buy-back, as is done in the case of rights issues and fix a record date for determination of entitlements as per shareholding on record date
a) Only 1
b)
Only 3
c)
Only 2
d)
Only 4

43. What is the Finace Ministry’s decision on the rates applicable on small savings instruments schemes that would be announced on April 1 each year?
a) rate would remain valid till the maturity of the scheme
b)
rate would change in the first qurter of that respective year
c)
rates would change depending on different maturity period
d)
rates would remainvalid for six months post the maturity

44. Scientists discovered unknown species off the coast of Antarctica. Consider the following statements: i) The temperature in this region rises to 380 degree Celsius. Ii) There is plenty of light in this region.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
a) Only i
b)
Only ii
c)
Both i and ii
d)
Neither i nor ii

45. Scientists produced artificial human semen to help infertile men.  Consider the following statements:
i) The scientists grew the sperm by enveloping the germ cells in a special compound called agar jelly.
ii) The artificial human semen could help infertile men father their own children.
Choose the right option:
a) Both i and ii are correct.
b)
Only i is correct.
c)
Only ii is correct.
d)
Neither i nor ii is correct.

46. Health Authorities in Australia recently detected Deadly Disease, Murray Valley Encephalitis.  The disease is caused by the__.
a) Flies
b)
Mosquitoes
c)
Birds
d)
Dogs

47. Which PSU announced on 2 January 2012 that its board approved in a meeting held on 30 December 2011 the switching over to internationally-accepted Gross Caloric Value-based pricing mechanism?
a) BHEL
b)
ISPAT
c)
CIL
d)
IOC

48. Mukesh Ambani’s Reliance Industries Ltd (RIL) entered the media and entertainment sector by making a major investment in one of India’s largest broadcast companies. Name the broadcast company.
a) Network18 Group
b)
Adlabs Films
c)
Balaji Telefilms
d)
Bag Films

49.  India approved the acquisition of French advanced missile systems to arm the Mirage-2000 fighter jets. Consider the following statements:
i)  The cabinet committee on Security cleared the contract for the fire and forget MICA with French company MBDA.
ii) MICA are interception and aerial combat missiles.
Choose the right option:
a) Both i and ii are correct.
b)
Only i is correct.
c)
Only ii is correct.
d)
Neither i nor ii is correct.

50.  The Union government approved Katra-Quazigund Railway line project. The project is located in__.
a) Jammu and Kashmir
b)
Bihar
c)
Punjab
d)
Haryana

51.
(1) Theatre director, screenplay writer and actor Satyadev Dubey, credited with introducing existential and absurd theatre, passed away on 25 December 2011. Which facts about the concerned person is/are not true?
(2) he got attracted to the post-1947 theatre and joined Theatre Unit, the theatre group-cum-school founded by Ebrahim Alkazi
(3) Dubey came into prominence with Dharamvir Bharati’s radio-play Andha Yug that brought to the fore the pervasive criminal and homicidal tendencies during the times of war.
(4) He penned screenplays/dialogue of some acclaimed films in the 1970s, including Shyam Benegal's Nishant, Ankur, Kalyug and Bhumika
(5) He won the Filmfare Award for Best Dialogue in 1980 for the film Ankur
a) Only 1
b)
Only 4
c)
2 & 3
d)
Only 2

52. Lok Sabha on 27 December 2011 passed the Lokpal and Lokayukta bill, 2011. Consider the following statements:
i) The setting up of Lokayuktas by the states would not be mandatory.
ii) The constitutional amendment bill fell through.
Choose the right option:
a) Both i and ii are correct.
b)
Only i is correct.
c)
Only ii is correct.
d)
Neither i nor ii is correct.

53.
(1) Reserve Bank of India deregulated non-resident external (NRE) deposits on 16 December 2011 allowing banks  to offer higher interest rates to dollar-denominated accounts. Which of the following facts related to the above statement is/are not true?
(2) Reserve Bank freed the rates on non-resident external accounts, offering interest as high as 9.6% per annum
(3) Following RBI’s deregulation five Indian banks, including HDFC Bank and Yes Bank on 23 December 2011 raised their interest rates on such deposits in order to lure foreign money
(4) Private lender Yes Bank increased the interest rates on fixed deposits held by non-resident Indians (NRIs) to 8.4 per cent from 3.82 per cent
(5) The new rates are effective from 24 December for fresh deposits as well as those being renewed on maturity.
a) 1 & 2
b)
Only4
c)
Only 3
d)
1 & 4

54. According to the RBI data, India's foreign exchange reserves fell by what amount to $302.1 billion during the week ended 16 December  2011 on account of a fall in foreign currency assets?
a) $4.67 billion
b)
$3.33 billion
c)
$5 billion
d)
$5.75 billion

55. Telecom Commission, the decision-making body of the Department of Telecommunications recommended a uniform licence fee of what per cent of adjusted gross revenues (AGR) as against the prevalent rate of 6-8 per cent?
a) 10%
b)
8%
c)
5.2%
d)
9.3%

56.  NASA's Kepler mission discovered the first Earth-size planets orbiting a sun-like star outside our solar system. These planets are called ___ and____.
a) Kepler-20e; Kepler-20f
b)
Kepler-20a; Kepler-20b
c)
Kepler-20c; Kepler-20d
d)
Kepler-20m; Kepler-20n

57. Scientists at the Salk Institute for Biological Studies report discovered a missing link between the body’s biological clock and sugar metabolism system. Consider the following statements
i)
Sugar Metabolism is a process by which the body uses sugar for energy.
ii) If the human body produces too little insulin, the amount of sugar in the blood increases abnormally, a condition known as hyperglycemia.  Choose the right option:
a) Both i and ii are correct.
b)
Neither i nor ii is correct.
c)
Only i is correct.
d)
Only ii is correct.

58. Name the gene found by the neuroscientists, which could help in creating and altering memory.
a) Mpas 4
b)
Npas 4
c)
Npas 3
d)
Mpas 2

59. Name the Rashtriya Lok Dal (RLD) leader who was inducted into the Union Cabinet as civil aviation minister on 18 December 2011.
a) Ajit Singh
b)
Jayant Chaudhary
c)
Devendra Nagpal
d)
Sanjay Singh Chauhan

60. Popularly known as Adam Gondvi, this Hindi poet who  wrote revolutionary poetry focusing on the pathetic state of dalits and the poor breathed his last in Lucknow on 18 December 2011. Name the poet.
a) Bharat Bhusan
b)
Ram Nath Singh
c)
Uday Prakash
d)
Shail Chaturvedi
e)
Naresh Mehta

61. The Union cabinet of India on 22 December 2011 approved __ percent share for minorities within the 27% OBC quota in jobs and university seats.
a) 4.5
b)
5.6
c)
3.4
d)
5

62. The Manipur Legislative Assembly passed the Manipur Lokayukta Bill, 2011. Manipur will be the __state in North-Eastern India to have alegislation of Lokayukta.
a) Second
b)
Third
c)
First
d)
Fourth

63.
(1) Former Czech president Vaclav Havel who had been suffering from chronic respiratory problems died on 18 December 2011. Which of the following facts mentioned about him is/are not true?
(2) He was the tenth and last president of Czechoslovakia (1989–92) and the second President of the Czech Republic (1993–2003)
(3) He played a seminal role in the Velvet Revolution that ended four decades of repression by a regime which Havel ridiculed as Absurdistan.
(4) He co-authored the human rights manifesto Charter 77, which drew wide attention in the West.
(5) As president, he oversaw the country's transition to democracy and a free-market economy and also the peaceful 1993 breakup into the Czech Republic and Slovakia.
a) Only 3
b)
Only 1
c)
1 & 4
d)
Only 4

64. The enigmatic leader of North Korea Kim who led his nation for 17 years through a devastating famine while frustrating the United States and other global powers with approach to talks on giving up nuclear arms in return for food and other assistanceon died on 17 December 2011 after he suffered a massive heart attack. Name the leader
a) Kim Jong-il
b)
Kim Il-sung
c)
Kim Jong-un
d)
Kim Jong-chul

65. Which Controversial film based on the 116-year-old Mullaperiyar dam and directed by Sohan Roy made it to a shortlist for the Oscars under the Best Picture category?
a) Rio and The Muppets
b)
Undefeated
c)
Project Nim
d)
Dam 999

66. India and Australia on 16 December 2011 signed an agreement to amend DTAA (Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement).  DTAA was signed between India and Australia in__.
a) 1990
b)
1991
c)
1992
d)
1995

67. The Indian women's hockey team defeated Ireland 4-1 win to clinch the bronze medal in the four-nation tournament held in Parana, Argentina in December 2011. Which team won the gold medal?
a) South Africa
b)
USA
c)
Argentina
d)
Pakistan

68. Who defeated ace badminton player and World No. 4 Saina Nehwal of India in the women’s singles final of the $500000 BWF World Super Series badminton championship in China on 18 December 2011?
a) Zhang Ning
b)
Xie Xingfang
c)
Xu Huaiwen
d)
Wang Yihan

69. Which India striker was on 20 December 2011 voted Player of the Year by the All India Football Federation?
a) Sunil Chhetri
b)
Savio Medeira
c)
Kyrshan Lyngshing
d)
Babu Mani

70. Diesel consumption in Delhi declined by a startling 26% in 2010-11 compared to 2009-10. Delhi was however found to have used 2.24% more petrol in the same period. As per the latest Delhi government figures, the consumption of diesel in the city stood at what amount in 2010-2011?
a) 10.98 lakh metric tonnes
b)
7.5 lakh metric tonnes
c)
8.11 lakh metric tonnes
d)
6 lakh metric tonnes

71. Fears of continuing economic slowdown, lack of decision making at the centre, rising fiscal deficit combined with not-so-impressive revenue collections upset Dalal Street investors on 20 December 2011. Which of the foolowing facts  related to the above statement is/are not true?
1. Fears of continuing economic slowdown, lack of decision making at the centre, rising fiscal deficit combined with not-so-impressive revenue collections led to a 204 points loss in sensex that ended at 15175
2. The slide on 20 December 2011 was triggered by FII selling which recorded a net outflow of Rs 600 crore, taking the month’s total net outflow to about Rs 1700 crore.
3. The combined effect of the market’s slide and the depreciation of the rupee forced India to exit from the select group of countries with a $1 trillion market capitalization
4. There was not even a single ADR issue in 2011. However, companies raised about $220 million through GDRs (Global Depository Receipts) during 2011
a) Only 1
b)
3 & 4
c)
Only 3
d)
Only 2

72. Credit rating agency Moody's on 21 December 2011 upgraded the credit rating of the Indian government's bonds from the speculative to investment grade. Which of the following facts related to the above statement is/are true?
1. According to a release issued by the Finance Ministry, Moody's unified India's local and foreign currency bond ratings at Baa3
2. Moody's Investor Service upgraded its local currency rating for Indian government bonds to Baa3 which is speculative grade as compared to the earlier Ba1 which is junk or investment grade.
3. India's foreign currency bond ceiling is unchanged at Baa2, and the foreign currency bank deposit ceiling is Baa3. The local currency bond and bank deposit ceilings are unified at A1.
4. The government's local currency short-term rating has been changed to P-3 from NP, indicating the government's ability to repay short-term debts.
a) Only 2
b)
Only 1
c)
1 & 3
d)
Only 4

73. According to official data released here on 22 December 2011, food inflation dropped sharply to an almost four-year low of what per cent during the week ended 10 December indicating an overall easing of prices?
a) 1.5%
b)
1.32%
c)
1.81 %
d)
2.32%

74. Which of India's leading commodity bourses on 20 December 2011 became the world's fifth-largest commodity futures exchange?
a) National Multi Commodity Exchange of India
b)
Bharat Diamond Bourse
c)
Multi Commodity Exchange
d)
Bombay Stock Exchange

75. Ravi Ruia decided on 21 December 2011 to step down as chairman of which of the following London-listed after a trial court admitted a criminal chargesheet filed by the investigating agency, CBI?
a) Essar Energy
b)
Essar Shipping
c)
Essar Oil
d)
Eaasr Technologies

76. Which company won the award for Alternative Thinking and Driving Positive Change in the Fleet Owner category at the Mahindra Navistar Transport Excellence Awards 2011 at Hotel Ashok here on 20 December 2011?
a) Tata Motors
b)
Hero Group
c)
Edu Comp
d)
Agarwal Packers & Movers

77. Which PSU lender decided to aggressively market its gold loan scheme for farmers to prevent defaults after the agriculture sector witnessed a sharp spike in bad debt in the past one year?
a) Union Bank
b)
United Bank of India
c)
Industrial Development Bank of India
d)
State Bank of India

78. Who did the Central Government appoint as Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of Andhra Bank?
a) B. A. Prabhakar
b)
O. P. Bhatt
c)
Pratip Chaudhuri
d)
S. Vishvanathan

79. The directorate general of hydrocarbons (DGH), the technical arm of the oil ministry approved which company’s proposal to commence production from Bhagyam, the second-largest oil field in the Rajasthan block?
a) Essar Oil
b)
ONGC
c)
Cairn India
d)
Indian Oil

80. Scientists discovered that the protein__ is responsible for regulating fatty acid oxidation in the liver and is critical for metabolism.
a) CPT1
b)
CTP1
c)
CTT1
d)
CPT2

81. British Scientists recently developed a technology to produce pocket TV. Consider the following statements:
i) Scientists developed a new form of light-emitting crystals, known as quantum dots.
ii) These tiny crystals are 100000 times smaller than the width of human hair.
Choose the right option:
a) Both i and ii are correct.
b)
Only i is correct.
c)
Only ii is correct.
d)
Neither i nor ii is correct.

82. Scientists developed a hydrogel that regenerate healthy and scar-free tissue on skin damaged by severe burns.  Consider the following statements:
i) The hydrogel helps in formatting of new blood vessels and skin including hair follicles.
ii) The injured soldiers, fire victims and people with third degree burns can avail of the gel.
Choose the right option:
a) Both i and ii are correct.
b)
Only i is correct.
c)
Only ii is correct.
d)
Neither i nor ii is correct.

83. The Sangita Kalanidhi M.S. Subbulakshmi Award was presented to whom at the inauguration of the 85th annual conference of the Music Academy in Chennai on 15 December 2011?
a) S.R. Nathan
b)
Trichy Sankaran
c)
Subramania Pillai
d)
Subramaniyam Iyer

84. The 40th anniversary of vijay diwas was celebrated on which day marking the finest hour of the Indian armed forces when they defeated Pakistan, leading to the creation of Bangladesh in 1971?
a) 12 December
b) 15 December
c) 16 December
d) 18 December

85. The Himachal Pradesh Cabinet on 15 December 2011 approved amendment to the state industrial policy. Consider the following statements:
i) The amended industrial policy seeks to promote environmentally sustainable development in the state and encourage cleaner production and adoption.
ii) Under this policy, disincentive industries will be put on negative list.
Choose the right option:
a) Both i and ii are correct.
b)
Only i is correct.
c)
Only ii is correct.
d)
Neither i nor ii is correct.

86. The Supreme Court of India directed Tamil Nadu to ensure that the water level in the Mullaperiyar dam does not exceed __but declined to entertain Kerala’s plea for reducing the level to__.
a) 136 feet; 120 feet
b)
120 feet; 136 feet
c)
140 feet; 112 feet
d)
150 feet; 140 feet

87. A parliamentary committee on 13 December 2011 rejected the proposal to allow what percentage foreign direct investment in the insurance sector?
a) 51%
b)
49%
c)
43%
d)
29%

88. According to data from research body All India Organisation of Chemists and Druggists (AIOCD), Indian drugmakers posted a certain per cent month-on-month growth in sales of November 2011 which was the highest in the past 14 months. What was the per cent of sales growth projected for the month?
a) 23%
b)
31%
c)
21%
d)
43%

89. The government waived loan of handloom weavers in India to help revive the sector under the scheme of Revival, Reform and Restructuring Package for Handloom Sector. What amount of loan was waived?
a) Rs 548.35 crore
b)
Rs 420.66 crore
c)
Rs 506.64 crore
d)
Rs 3521 crore

90. A committee on mutual funds, constituted by SEBI in december 2011 recommended to the regulator’s board to break down the bifurcation within the fee structure known as expense ratio. Which of the following facts are not true with regard to the above statement?
1. Currently  mutual funds are allowed to charge up to 2.25% as expense ratio. fund houses are allowed to accept only 1.25% as asset management charges
2. Funds with large corpuses currently charge 1.55% as expenses charges
3. SEBI was suggested to keep overall scheme expenses unchanged at 2.25% for schemes with assets under management not exceeding Rs 400 crore
4. Expense ratio is more than important in debt schemes where the rate of return is not hig.
a) 1 & 2
b)
3 & 4
c)
1 & 3
d)
Only 2
e)
None of the above

91.
Which player became the first player to win the Orders of Merit on both sides of the Atlantic on 11 December 2011 when he shot a closing 66 to finish third in the Dubai World Championship?
a) Luke Donald
b)
Alvaro Quiros
c)
Rory McIlroy
d)
Paul Lawrie

92. Which country defeated Spain 1-0 to win for the 4th time hockey’s Champions Trophy title on 11 December 2011?
a) Pakistan
b)
New Zealand
c)
Australia
d)
Greece

93. Name the woman squash player who on 10 December 2011 annexed the elusive women’s title while in the Senior National Squash Championship in Chennai.
a) Sarah Fitz-Gerald
b)
Dipika Pallikal
c)
Anaka Alankamony
d)
Sushma Pillai

94.
(1) The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT) on 5 December 2011 transferred indigenously-developed Gigabit Passive Optical Network (GPON) technology to seven telecom equipment manufacturers. Which of the following facts about the technology is not true?
(2) The GPON technology is a pivotal component required for broadband connectivity over optical fibre.
(3) C-DOT indigenously designed and developed GPON technology, which can be used to provide triple play (voice, video and data) through fibre-based networks
(4) The GPON technology was tested, validated, field-evaluated and made operational in MTNL's/VSNL’s network in Ajmer (Rajasthan)
(5) The technology will help fulfil requirements of major national programmes like the National Optical Fibre Network and the State Wide Area Network.
a) Only 1
b)
Only 3
c)
1 & 4
d)
Only 4

95. Bank lending to the priority sector grew at what percentagein October 2011 on an annual basis due to lower offtake by agriculture and MSME segments as well as decline in micro credit?
a) 10%
b)
12%
c)
13.7%
d)
8.3%

96. With the inauguration of the first state-of-the-art ATDC-SMART (Skill for Manufacturing Apparels through Research and Training) in Egmore, Chennai, the Ministry of Textiles launched which of the following schemes?
a) National Technology Mission for Technical Textiles
b)
Integrated Skill Development Scheme
c)
Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme (TUFS) For Textile
d)
Rural Textiles Technology Development Skill


97. Which bank signed a memorandum of understanding with Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) to use the National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) facility  to facilitate electronic funds transfer of policy payments to policyholders?
a) IDBI
b)
Corp Bank
c)
Indian Overseas Bank
d)
Dhanlaxmi Bank

98. World Aids Day is observed anually on 1 December 2011. What was the theme of World AIDS Day 2011?
a) Getting to Zero
b)
Stigma and Discrimination
c)
Women & AIDS
d)
Force For Change: World AIDS Campaign With Young People

99.
(1) An icon of Indian cinema and evergreen star Dev Anand died at the age of 88 in London on 3 December 2011 (4 December according to IST) after suffering a massive cardiac arrest. Which of the following facts about him is/are not true?
(2) Dev Anand started his career with Prabhat Films' Hum Ek Hain (1946) soon after he joined IPTA
(3) Anand started producing films after the success of Ziddi. He launched his own company Navketan in 1949 which, by 2011, had produced 31 films
(4) His first colour film, Johny Mera Naam with Waheeda Rehman was based on the novel of the same name by R. K. Narayan
(5) The Government of India honoured him with the Padma Bhushan in 2001 and the Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 2002
a) 1 & 4
b)
Only 3
c)
2 & 4
d)
1 & 4

100. The Golden Peacock Award for the Best Film was given to which of the following films at the 42nd International Film Festival of India which came to an end at the Kala Academy in Panaji, Goa on 3 December 2011?
a) Russian film Elena
b)
an Israeli film Restoration
c)
Columbian Film Porfirio
d)
Malayalam film Adaminte Makan Abu
 
Answer
1. (c) 26. (d) 51. (b) 76. (d)
2. (e) 27. (c) 52. (a) 77. (d)
3. (d) 28. (a) 53. (c) 78. (a)
4. (d) 29. (b) 54. (a) 79. (c)
5. (c) 30. (b) 55. (b) 80. (a)
6. (d) 31. (b) 56. (a) 81. (a)
7. (b) 32. (c) 57. (a) 82. (a)
8. (e) 33. (b) 58. (b) 83. (b)
9. (b) 34. (d) 59. (a) 84. (c)
10. (b) 35. (c) 60. (b) 85. (a)
11. (b) 36. (d) 61. (a) 86. (a)
12. (c) 37. (d) 62. (b) 87. (b)
13. (b) 38. (e) 63. (b) 88. (c)
14. (c) 39. (e) 64. (a) 89. (d)
15. (a) 40. (e) 65. (d) 90. (d)
16. (a) 41. (b) 66. (b) 91. (a)
17. (a) 42. (c) 67. (c) 92. (c)
18. (b) 43. (a) 68. (d) 93. (b)
19. (d) 44. (a) 69. (a) 94. (b)
20. (c) 45. (a) 70. (c) 95. (a)
21. (e) 46. (a) 71. (d) 96. (b)
22. (c) 47. (c) 72. (a) 97. (d)
23. (a) 48. (a) 73. (c) 98. (a)
24. (c) 49. (a) 74. (d) 99. (b)
25. (b) 50. (a) 75. (a) 100. (c)

Quantitative Aptitude Practice Questions

Directions (Q. 1-9): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

1. -84 x 29 + 365 = ?
   
(1) 2436    

(2) 2801    

(3) 2801
   
(4) 2071    

(5) None of these

2. (21.69)2 - √324 =?
(1) 440.4615    

(2) 425.4561    

(3) 452.4561

(4) 442.4651    

(5) None ofthese

3. (800 ÷ 64) x (1296 ÷ 36) = ?

(1) 420    

(2) 460    

(3) 500

(4) 540    

(5) None of these

4. (42 x 229)÷(9261)1⁄3 =?

(1) 452    

(2) 448    

(3) 458

(4) 456    

(5) None of these

5. (35423 +7104 +41720)-(317 x 89)=?

(1) 28213    

(2) 84307    

(3) 50694

(4) 54096    

(5) None of these

6. (9% of 386) x (6.5% of 144) = ?

(1) 340.1664    

(2) 325.1664    

(3) 333.3333
   
(4) 328.0065    

(5) None of these

7 . 4+4.44+44.4+4.04+444=?
(1) 500.88    

(2) 577.2    

(3) 495.22

(4) 472.88    

(5) None of these

8. 3√? = (36x24)÷9

(1) 884736    

(2) 804036    

(3) 854734

(4) 814736    

(5) None of these

9. (43% of 2750)- (38% of 2990) = ?

(1) 49.3    

(2) 44.7    

(3) 43.6

(4) 46.3    

(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 10-13): What should come in place of question.mark (?) in the following number series?

10. 13 14 30 93 376 1885 ?

(1) 10818    

(2) 10316

(3) 11316

(4) 11318    

(5) None of these

11. 4 6 9 13.5 20.25 30.375.?

(1) 40.25    

(2) 45.5625    

(3) 42.7525

(4) 48.5625    

(5) None ofthese

12. 400  240  144  86.4  51. 84  31.1 04 ?

(1) 19.2466    

(2) 17.2244    

(3) 16.8824

(4) 18.6624    

(5) None of these

13. 9 4.5 4.5 6.75 13.5 33.75 ?

(1) 101.25    

(2) 103.75    

(3) 99.75

(4) 105.50    

(5) None of these

14. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs 625 is the same as the loss incurred after seIling the article for Rs 435. What is the cost price ofthe article?

(1) Rs 530    

(2) Rs 520    

(3) Rs 540

(4) Rs 550    

(5) None of these

15. A sum of Rs 817 is divided among A, Band C such that 'A' receives 25% more than 'B' and 'B' receives 25% less than 'C'. What is A's share in the amount?

(1) Rs228

(2) Rs247

(3) Rs285

(4) Rs 304    

(5) None of these

16. Ms Sujata invests 7% ie Rs 2170, of her monthly salary in mutual funds. Later she invests 18% of her monthly salary in recurring deposits. Also, she invests 6% of her salary on NSC's. What is the total annual amount in- vested by Ms Sujata? .
(1) Rs 1,25,320

(2) Rs 1,13,520    

(3) Rs,I,35,120

(4) Rs 1,15,320    

(5) None of these

17. What is 30% of 40% of 2/5 2500?
(1) 500    

(2) 400    

(3) 360

(4) 120    

(5) None of these

18. A, B, C and D are four consecutive even numbers respectively and their average is 65. What is the product of A and D?

(1) 3968    

(2) 4216    

(3) 4092

(4) 4352    

(5) None of these

19. The sum offive numbers is 555. The average of the first two numbers is 75 and the third number is liS. What is the average of the last two numbers?

(1) 145    

(2) 290    

(3) 265

(4) 150    

(5) None of these

20. A car covers the first 35 km of its journey in 45 minutes and the remaining 69 km in 75 minutes. What is the average speed of the car?

(1) 42 kmlhr    

(2) 50 km/hr    

(3) 52 kmlhr

(4) 60 km/hr    

(5) None of these

21. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'PRIDE' be arranged?
   
(1) 60    

(2) 120    

(3) 15

(4) 360    

(5) None of these

22. The ages of Samir and Tanuj are in the ratio of 8 : 15 years respectively. After 9 years the ratio of their ages will be II : 18. What is the difference in years between their ages?
(1) 24 years

(2) 21 years.

(3) 20 years

(4)  33 years

(5)  None of these

Directions (Q. 23-27): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
23. 724.998+24.048+ 14.954=?    
(1) 8   
(2) 13   
(3) 2   
(4) 10   
(5) 16
24. (848.999+274.052)÷ 3.0054=?    
(1) 940   
(2) 836   
(3) 184   
(4)298   
(5)374
25.  3√184900 =?            
(1) 56   
(2) 44   
(3) 67   
(4) 33   
(5) 21
26. 18.5% of 425 + 16.2% of 388 =?    
(1) 141   
(2) 224   
(3) 116   
(4) 183   
(5) 215

27. 18.345 x 19.068 x ? = 11538.93375    
(1) 46    

(2) 61    

(3) 27    

(4) 33    

(5) 55


Directions (Q. 28-32): In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. "

28. 529 841 961 1296 1681 1849 2209


(1) 1296        

(2) 841     

(3) 961

(4) 1681        

(5) None ofthese

29. 13   14  27  45  68  109   177
   
(1) 27        

(2) 109        

(3) 45

(4) 68        

(5) None of these

30. 14 22 34.5 55.5 87.25 13.875 209.125
   
(1) 55.5    

(2) 34.5    

(3) 135.875

(4) 87.25    

(5) None of these

31. 274 301 426 769 1498 2824 5026

(1) 301    

(2) 426    

(3) 79
   
(4) 2824    

(5) None of these

32. 4  28  160   990   6970   55832   502560


(1) 160    

(2) 990    

(3) 55832

(4) 6970    

(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 33-37): What s Would come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

33. 89.4 x 412.8 x 648.1 =16?

(1) 41.8    

(2) 16.2    

(3) 18.4

(4) 25.6    

(5) None of these

34. 12% of 840 x 0.25% of 148 =?

(1) 37.296

(2) 101.17    

(3) 68.432

(4) 97.046.    

(5) None of these

35. A shopkeeper sells 200 metres of cloth for Rs 9,000 at a profit of Rs 5 per metre. What is the cost price of 1 metre of cloth?
(1) Rs45    

(2) Rs40    

(3) Rs35

(4) Rs30    

(5) None of these

36. the area of a circle is.1386 sq cm. What is the circumfer- ence of the circle?

(1) 142cm    

(2) 160cm    

(3) 130cm

(4) 132 cm    

(5) None of these

37. In a college a total number of 27 professors are appointed for all the faculties; viz Arts, Commerce and Science. If , equal number of professors are appointed for each of the faculties, how many professors are assigned to each faculty?

(1) 9    

(2) 12    

(3) 6

(4) 3    

(5) None of these     

38. Sridhar invests Rs 3,750 in shares, which is 25% of his monthly income. What is his monthly income?
(1) Rs 12,000    

(2) Rs 15,000    

(3) Rs 10,000

(4) Rs 16,000    

(5) None of these

39. Find the average of the following setof scores.

302, 152, 132, 122, 112
   
(1) 184        

(2) 165    

(3) 152

(4) 176        

(5) None of these

40. A bus covers a distance of 172 kms in 4 hours. What is the speed of the bus?
(1) 52km1hr    

(2) 47km1hr    

(3) 43km1hr

(4) 38 kmIhr    

(5) None of these

41. The total number of students in a school is 4800, out of which 60% are girls. What is the total number of boys in this school?


(1) 1920    

(2) 1934    

(3) 1980

(4) 1910    

(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 42-43): Each question below is followed by two statements A and B. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.

Give answer (1) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statementit alone  not sufficient

Give answer 2) if the statement C alone is sufficien, to an we: the question, but the statement A alone is not sufficient.

Give answer 3) ifboth statements A and B together are needed to answer the question.

Give answer 4) if either the statementAalone or the statement B ,alone IS sufficient to-answer the question.

Give answer 5) if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and B together, but need even more data.

42. How many women can complete a piece of work in 15 days?

A . 12 women can complete the same piece of work in 20 days.

B. 10 men can complete rhe same piece of work in 12 days.
43. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a. on an amount of Rs 12,000/- deposited in a bank?
A. The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest is Rs 172.80.
B. The simple interest for two years is Rs2,880.
Directions (Q. 44-48): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
44. (4576+3286+5639)÷(712+415+212)=?

(1) 18    

(2) 22    

(3) 34

(4) 10    

(5) 46

45.  675.456+ 12.492 x 55.671 =?

(1) 971    

(2) 1071    

(3) 1171

(4) 1271

(5) 1371

46. (447.22) 2=?

(1) 200000    

(2) 210000    

(3) 220000
   
(4) 230000    

(5) 240000

47. 4374562 x 64 = ? x 7777
(1) 360    

(2) 3600    

(3) 36000

(4) 360000    

(5) 3600000

48. (872% of 659) ÷ 543 = ?

(1) 17    

(2) 11    

(3) 21
   
(4) 27    

(5) 31

Directions (Q. 49-53): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

49. 5 9 18 34 59 95 ?


(1) 272    

(2) 168    

(3) 116

(4) 148    

(5) 144

50. 1200 480 192 76.8 30.72 12.288 ?

(1) 4.9152    

(2) 5.8192    

(3) 6.7112

(4) 7.6132    

(5) 8.5172

51. 963 927 855 747 603 423  ?

(1) 209

(2) 208    

(3) 207

(4) 206    

(5) 205

52. 841 .961 1089 1225 1369 1521. ?

(1) 1581            

(2) 1681        

(3) 1781

(4) 1881            

(5) 1981

53. 18  20  44  138  560  2810 ?

(1) 16818        

(2) 16836        

(3) 16854
   
(4) 16872         

(5) 16890

Directions (Q. 54-58): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 

54. 74+.12x0.75-6 =?

   
(1)
72    

(2)
67    

(3) 62

(4) 77    

(5) None of these

55. 8888 + 848 + 88 - ? = 7337 + 737

(1) 1750    

(2) 1650    

(3) 1550

(4) 1450    

(5) None of these

56. 515.15-15.51-1.51-5.11-1.11=?

(1) 491.91

(2) 419.91    

(3) 499.19

(4) 411.19    

(5) None of these

57. (?) 2 + (123) 2 = (246)  2 - (99)  2 - 2462

(1) 184    

(2) 186     

(3) 182

(4) 180    

(5) None of these

58. 414 x? x7=127512

(1) 36    

(2) 40    

(3) 44

(4) 48    

(5) None of these

59. [(84) 2 ÷28 x 12]÷24 =7 x ?

(1) 15    

(2) 17    

(3) 19

(4) 21    

(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 60-65): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.
60. 561204 x 58 =? x 55555
(1) 606
(2) 646  
(3) 556
(4) 716 5)586
61. 459.008 + 3.0056 x 88.862 =?
(1) 738
(2) 725  
(3) 695
(4) 752
(5) 666
62. (444%of531)÷972 =? 
(1) 4.5
(2) 0.5  
(3) 2.5   
(4) 8.5 5)6.5
63. (9321 +5406+ 1001)÷(498+929+660)=?
(1) 13.5
(2) 4.5  
(3) 16.5
(4) 7.5
(5) 10.5
64. 9654 /21 +7638 / 44 =?
   
(1) 633    

(2) 600    

(3) 643

(4) 621    

(5) 598
65. (621.52)2=?
(1) 386300
(2) 379300
(3) 398300
(4) 365300
(5) 356300

Directions (Q. 66-70): What SilUUili come in place of question mark ('?) in the following number series ?
66. 444 467 513 582 674 789 ?
(1) 950  
(2) 904   
(3) 927
(4) 881  
(5) 973
67. 23 25 53 163 657 3291 ?
(1) 16461 
(2) 13169   
(3) 9877
(4) 23045  
(5) 19753
68. 3 13 65 585 7605 129285 ?
(1) 2456415  
(2) 2235675   
(3) 2980565
(4) 2711985  
(5) 2197g45
69. 1 16 81 256 625 1296 ?
(1) 4096  
(2) 2401   
(3) 1764
(4) 3136  
(5) 6561
70. 12 12 18 45 180 1170 ?
(1) 12285  
(2) 10530   
(3) 11700
(4) 12870  
(5) 7605

Directions (Q.71-80): What should come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions?
71 .4+4.44+0.4+44.04+444=?
(1) 497.24  
(2) 487.66   
(3) 496.88
(4) 469.88  
(5) None of these
72. [(130)2÷ 25 x 15] ÷ 30 =?
(1) 352  
(2) 314   
(3) 326
(4) 338  
(5) None of these
73. 38+16x0.8=?
(1) 43.2  
(2) 50.8   
(3) 44.8
(4) 1.9  
(5) None of these
74. (?)2 +(65)2 = (160)2 -(90)2 -7191
(1) 75  
(2) 77   
(3) 79
(4) 81  
(5) None of these
75. 398 x ? x 7 = 47362
(1) 15  
(2) 13   
(3) 17
(4) 19  
(5) None of these
76. 1485x?=594
(1) 2/5
(2) 3/4
(3) 3/5
(4) 5/6
(5) None of these
77. 2116+692-?=1111
(1) 1667   
(2) 1677   
(3) 1687
(4) 1697   
(5) None of these
78. 6.896 + 3.753 - 2.005 + 1.004 =?
(1) 9.486   
(2) 9.648   
(3) 9.864
(4) 9.846   
(5) None of these
79. (6.5% of 375)-(0.85% of 230)=?
(1) 23.42   
(2) 24.24   
(3) 21.64
(4) 25.76   
(5) None of these
80. (13)54 x (13)-51 =.?
(1) 2197     .   
(2) 39   
(3) 169
(4) 130      
(5) None of these
81. 93. 2/7 x 5/6 x 3/8 x ? = 790

(1) 8848

(2) 8246

(3) 8484

(4) 8868
(5) None of these
82. 968 x 445 ÷ ?=17230.4
(1) 60 

(2) 40 

(3) 25 

(4) 35 

(5) None of these

83. (0.05 x 6.25) ÷ 2.5 =?

(1) 0.105

(2) 0.95

(3) 0.115

(4) 1.25 5)

(5) None of these

84. (41) 2 + (38) 2X (0.15) 2 =?

(1) 3125.0225    

(2) 1713.49

(3) 3125.15

(4) 59204.0225    

(5) None of these
85. In an election between two candidates, one got 72% of the total valid votes. 25% of the total votes are invalid. If the total votes are 8200, what is the number of valid votes the other person got?

(1)
1835    

(2)
1722

(3)
2050
   
(4)
4428    

(5)
None of these

86. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'WEDDING' be arranged?

(1)
5040    

(2)
2500

(3)
2520

(4)
5000    

(5)
Noneofthese

87. Milind takes as much time in running 15 metres as a car takes in covering 40 metres. What will be the distance covered by Milind during the time the car covers 2 km?
   
(1)
1000 metres    

(2)
600 metres    

(3)
650 metres

(4)
750 metres    

(5)
None of these

88. Four milkmen rented a pasture. A grazed 15 cows for 4 months, B grazed lQ cows for 2 months, C grazed 18 cows for 6  months, and D grazed 16 cows for 5 months. If A's share of rent is Rs 1,020, whatis C's share of rent?

(1)
Rs 1,836    

(2)
Rs 1,360    

(3)
Rs816

(4)
Cannot be determined

 (5)
None of these

Directions (Q. 89-92): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions given below. Out of 6500 students from the Arts wing of a college, 21 % of the total number of students have majored only in Psychology. 12% of the total number of students have majored only in English Literature, and 15% of the total number of students have majored only in Politics. 7% of the total number of students have majored only in Philosophy, and 10% of the total number of students have majored only in History. 8% of the total number of students have majored in both 'Psychology and Philosophy. 4% of the total number of students have majored in History as well as Politics, and 11 % of the total number of students have majored in English Literature as well as Politics. 9% of the total number of students have majored in Psychology and English Li .rature, and 3% of the total number of students have majored in History and Philosophy.

89.What is the ratio of the number of students majoring in Philosophy to the number of students majoring only in Psychology ?

(1)
4:5

(2)
5:6

(3)
6:7

(4)
7:8

(5)
None of these

90. Students majoring in History are approximately what percent of the total number of students majoring in Politics?

(1)
48    

(2)
61    

(3)
52    

(4)
57    

(5)
45

91.How many students have majored only in Politics?

(1)
650

(2)
975    

(3)
780

(4)
455

(5)
None of these

92. What is thetotal number of students majoring in English Literature?

(1)
780

(2)
1495

(3)
1300

(4)
2050

(5) None of these

93. Lowest number of students have majored in which subject?

(1)
History    

(2)
Philosophy    

(3)
Politics

(4)
English Literature     

(5)
Psychology
94. 9654 /21 +7638 / 44 =?
  
(1)
633   

(2)
600     

(3)
643

(4)
621   

(5)
598

95. (4.36) 2 x 66.5 - 371 = ?

(1)
902     

(2)
893     

(3)
871

(4)
888     .

(5)
880

Directions (Q. 96-100): What approximate value should come in place ofthe question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
96. 3√7469 x√ 668 =?

(1) 300    

(2) 350    
                                              
(3) 505

(4) 425    

(5) 575

97. 2.5 x 0.08 ÷ (1.9)2 =?

(1) 1.5    

(2) 0.8    

(3) 0.010

(4) 0.06    

(5) 2.1
Directions (Q. 98-99): Each qu stion below is followed by two statements A and B. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.
Give answer I) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the Statement A alone is not sufficient
Give answer 2) if the statement C alone is sufficien, to an we: the question, but the statement A alone is not sufficient.
Give answer 3) ifboth statements A and B together are needed to answer the question. Give answer 4) if either the statement Aalone or the statement B alone IS sufficient to-answer the question. Give answer 5) if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and 8 together, but need even more data.

98. How many women can complete a piece of work in 15 days?
A. 12 women can comnlete the same piece of work in 20 days.
B. 10 men can complete rhe same piece of work in 12 days.

99.  What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a. on an amount of Rs 12,000/- deposited in a bank? 

A. The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest is Rs 172.80.
B. The simple interest for two years is Rs2,880.
100. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'WEDDING' be arranged?
(1) 5040   
(2) 2500
(3) 2520
(4) 5000   
(5) Noneofthe

Answer
1. (4) 26. (2) 51. (2) 76. (1)
2. (3) 27. (5) 52. (4) 77. (4)
3. (5) 28. (2) 53. (4) 78. (2)
4. (3) 29. (1) 54. (1) 79. (2)
5. (5) 30. (4) 55. (1) 80. (5)
6. (2) 31. (1) 56. (3) 81. (1)
7. (2) 32. (3) 57. (3) 82. (3)
8. (1) 33. (5) 58. (3) 83. (5)
9. (1) 34. (4) 59. (5) 84. (2)
10. (4) 35. (4) 60. (5) 85. (4)
11. (3) 36. (4) 61. (5) 86. (5)
12. (2) 37. (1) 62. (2) 87. (1)
13. (4) 38. (2) 63. (3) 88. (3)
14. (1) 39. (4) 64. (4) 89. (4)
15. (1) 40. (4) 65. (1) 90. (2)
16. (3) 41. (5 66. (3) 91. (5)
17. (4) 42. (3) 67. (5) 92. (1)
18. (4) 43. (5) 68. (4) 93. (3)
19. (2) 44. (3) 69. (2) 94. (5)
20. (1) 45. (1) 70. (1) 95. (4)
21. (3) 46. (2) 71. (3) 96. (1)
22. (3) 47. (4) 72. (4) 97. (1)
23. (4) 48. (5) 73. (2) 98. (3)
24. (3) 49. (1) 74. (5) 99. (5)
25. (5) 50. (3) 75. (1) 100. (5)