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Thursday, May 31, 2012

Indian Overseas Bank Specialist Officers Recruitment

Indian Overseas Bank, a leading Public Sector Bank with headquarters in Chennai having geographical presence all over India and abroad invites ON-LINE applications from Indian Citizens for recruitment against 551 vacancies for various Specialist Officers positions
Top Management Grade (TMG SCALE VI):1. Risk Management: 01post
2. Integrated Treasury Management: 01post
3. Information Technology: 01post
4. Cash Management – Transaction Banking: 01post
Senior Management Grade (SMG SCALE V):5. Risk Management: 02posts
6. Information Technology – (MIS): 01post
7. Media Officers: 01post
Senior Management Grade (SMG SCALE IV):8. Chief Economist: 01post
Middle Management Grade (MMG SCALE III):9. Economist: 04posts
Middle Management Grade (MMG SCALE II):
10. Manager-Security Officers (Manager - Security Officer 9 + Manager - Fire Officer 1=10): 10posts
11. Manager-Chartered Accountants: 25posts
12. Manager-Company Secretary: 01post
13. Manager-Electrical Engineer: 01post
14. Manager-Printing Technologist: 01post
15. Credit Officers: 500posts
Application Fee/Postage Charge (Non-refundable): For SC/ST/Physically Challenged Rs. 50/- and for all others Rs. 300/- Candidates should ensure their eligibility before paying the fees/applying/attending the written test/interview
Selection procedure: for 01 to 07 and 10 to 14: Group Discussion and/ or an Interview, For 08 and 09 Brief Written test on the day of the interview followed by a Group Discussion and/or an Interview and for 15 Written Test and Interview
How to apply: Eligible candidates are required to apply 'online' only through our website and no other means/ mode of application will be acceptable and the system generated printed application form (online) for the respective post applied, complete in all respects and with the documents specified therein should be mailed only by ordinary post in a closed envelope super-scribed “Application For Post Of _________ (Post Code - ____) in
Indian Overseas Bank”, to reach the prescribed address on or before the last dates specified for receipt of the same: Indian Overseas Bank Specialist Officer Recruitment Project – 2012 Human Resources Development Department Central Office, No. 763, Anna Salai, Chennai – 600002
Important dates:
Closing Date for Online Registration (for all applicants including those from far flung area) 12.06.2012
Payment of Application Fee/ Postage Charge (for all applicants including those from far flung area) 29.05.2012 to 12.06.2012
Last date for receipt of system generated print–out of registered application along with payment challan and other documents (Post Codes 1-14) 19.06.2012
Tentative Date of Written Examination (Only for Post Code 15) 29.07.2012

For more details Click here

Punjab & Sind Bank Specialist Officers Recruitment

Punjab & Sind Bank invites applications for the post of Specialist Officers from Indian citizens who have taken the Common Written Examination for Specialist Officers conducted by IBPS in March 2012, hold a valid Score card issued by IBPS and meet the prescribed eligibility criteria:
1. Chartered Accountants (MMGS –III): 15postsQualification: A Graduate from any university with a pass in the final examination of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
2. Chartered Accountants (MMGS –II): 35posts
A Graduate from any university with a pass in the final examination of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
3. IT Officers (in Generalist cadre) (JMGS –I): 125posts
B.E/ B. Tech (or equivalent) Degree in Computer Science/ IT/ Electronics/ Electronics & Telecommunications/ Electronics & Communication/ Electronics & Instrumentation or Electronics with Computer Science as one of the subjects or MCS or MCA/ B.Sc.-IT/ BCA OR MCA/ M. Sc (Computer Science/ IT)/ Post Graduate in Electronics & Telecommunication/ Electronics & Communication/ Electronics & Instrumentation/ Computer Science/ IT from a recognized University/ Institute OR Graduate from a recognized university having passed DOEACC `B’ level
4. Agriculture Field Officer -Scale I (in generalist cadre) (JMGS –I): 100posts
Degree in Agriculture or allied specializations such as Horticulture/Animal Husbandry/ Veterinary Science/ Dairy Science/ Agriculture Engineering/ Fishery Science/ Pisciculture/ Agriculture Marketing & Cooperation etc. from recognized university
5. Rajbhasha Adhikari (Scale I) (JMGS –I): 15posts
A post Graduate Degree in Hindi with English as a subject in degree level OR a post graduate Degree in Sanskrit with English and Hindi as a subject in degree level
6. Technical Officer Civil & Electrical Engineer (Scale I) (JMGS –I): 10posts
1. Civil: 08posts
2. Electrical: 02posts
 Degree in Engineering i.e. B.E / B. Tech in Civil Engineering/ Electrical Engineering, as the case may be
7. Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) (SMGS –V): 01post
Application Fee 
(Including Postage/ Intimation Charges) (Non-Refundable): For Specialist Officers for SC/ST/PWD candidates Rs. 50/-and for all others Rs. 200/-. The fee for SC/ST/ PWD candidates is towards postage/ intimation charges only and for others the fee includes postal charges of Rs.50/-
Selection Procedure: Selection for the post of `Specialist Officers (except Chartered Accountants and CISO)’ will be made on the basis of performance in Common Written Examination (CWE) conducted by IBPS in written examination in March 2012 and Interview, taken together
How to apply: Candidates are required to apply online through No other means/ mode of application will be accepted.
Important dates: 
• Payment of Application Fees 01.06.2012 to15.06.2012
• Opening date for Online Registration 01.06.2012
• Last Date for Online Registration (Including candidates from far-flung areas) 15.06.2012

For more details Click here

Allahabad Bank Specialist Officers Recruitment

Allahabad Bank invites applications for recruitment of 115 Specialist Officers from Indian citizens who have taken the pre-requisite Common Written Examination (CWE) for Specialist Officers conducted by Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS), Mumbai on 11.03.2012 and have been declared as “QUALIFIED” in the said CWE
1. Officer (Information Technology) (JMG, Scale – I): 70postsQualification: Degree in Computer Science/ Computer Applications/Information Technology/ Electronics/ Electronics & Telecommunications/ Electronics & Communication/ Electronics & Instrumentation from a recognized University / Institution. OR Post Graduate Degree in Electronics/ Electronics & Tele Communication/ Electronics & Communication/ Electronics & Instrumentation /Computer Science / Information Technology/Computer Applications from a recognized University / Institution. OR Graduate from a recognized university having passed DOEACC ‘B’ level
2. Officer (Official Language) (JMG, Scale – I): 10postsQualification: A Post Graduate Degree in Hindi with English as a subject at the degree level OR a Post Graduate Degree in Sanskrit with English and Hindi as subjects at the degree level
3. Civil Engineer (JMG, Scale – I): 05postsQualification: Degree in Engineering in Civil from any recognized University
4. Officer (Law) (JMG, Scale – I): 10postsQualification: A Bachelor degree in Law (LLB) from a recognized University
5. Manager (Law) (MMG, Scale-II): 20postsQualification: A Bachelor Degree in Law (LLB) from a recognized University
IBPS CWE – Specialist Officers – Individual Subject wise qualifying marks:
Objective Test / Subject: 
Test of Reasoning, Test of English Language, Test of General Awareness / Test of Quantitative Aptitude & Test of Professional Knowledge
For General: 24 & above
For SC/ST/OBC/PWD: 21 & above
Fee: for SC/ST/Persons with Disabilities (PWD) Rs. 50/- and for GEN/OBC Rs.100/-
How to Apply: Candidates are required to apply On-Line through website
 No other means/ mode of application will be accepted
Important dates:
Last date for Payment of application fee/Intimation charges 09.06.2012
Closing Date for ON-LINE Registration of Application on website (For all applicants including those from far flung areas.) 10.06.2012
Relevant date for Age / Qualification reckoned as on (As fixed by IBPS at the time of inviting applications for CWE) 01.12.2011

For more details Click here

Wednesday, May 30, 2012

Uttar Bihar Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam., 2012

General English 
(Exam Held on 4-3-2012)

Directions—(Q. 1 to 10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage, against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once upon a time there was a river. He was …(1)… unfriendly. The river lived alone, and refused to share his water with any fish, plant or animal. Thus his life went on, sadly and filled with loneliness, for many centuries.

One day, a little girl with a fish bowl came to the bank of this river. In the bowl lived Scamp, her favourite little fish. The girl was about to …(2)… to another country, and she wouldn’t be able to take Scamp with her. So she had decided to give Scamp his freedom.

When Scamp …(3)… into the river, he immediately felt the river’s loneliness. He tried talking to the river, but the river asked him to go away. Scamp was a very happy little fish, and he wasn’t going to give up so …(4)…. He spoke to the river again, swam here and there, and finally he started jumping in and …(5)… of the water. The river felt tickled by all the jumping and splashing and …(6)… laughing. After a while, this put the river in such a good mood that he started talking to Scamp. Almost without knowing it, by the end of that day, Scamp and the river and become very good friends.

The river spent that night …(7)… about how much fun it was to have friends, and how much he had missed not having them. He asked himself why he had never had them, but he couldn’t remember. The next morning, Scamp …(8)… the river with a few playful splashes and that was when the river remembered why he had decided to be such an unfriendly river. He remembered that he didn’t like being tickled. He remembered perfectly how he had told everyone to scoot and that he wasn’t going to …(9)… up with all that tickling.

But, remembering how sad and lonely he had felt for so many years, the river realised that although it may sometimes be a bit inconvenient or uncomfortable, it was always …(10)… to have friends, than being lonely.

1. (A) so (B) total (C) very (D) extreme (E) full
Ans : (C)

2. (A) move (B) goes (C) visit (D) transferred (E) toured
Ans : (A)

3. (A) jump (B) fell (C) look (D) dives (E) slip
Ans : (B)

4. (A) long (B) sooner (C) nicely (D) easily (E) lazily
Ans : (D)

5. (A) in (B) beside (C) out (D) below (E) away
Ans : (C)

6. (A) stopped (B) started (C) felt (D) thought (E) heard
Ans : (B)

7. (A) forgetting (B) discuss (C) ignoring (D) thinking (E) gazing
Ans : (D)

8. (A) slept (B) woke (C) talked (D) irritate (E) splash
Ans : (C)

9. (A) live (B) stand (C) sit (D) light (E) put
Ans : (A)

10. (A) better (B) worse (C) sad (D) easy (E) happy
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11 to 15) Each sentence below has a blank, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

11. Meeta ……… many gifts on her birthday.
(A) get (B) pick (C) received (D) seen (E) have
Ans : (C)

12. Please ……… the website for all the updates.
(A) browsed (B) check (C) surfing (D) think (E) hacked
Ans : (B)

13. The garden was …… of flowers of different kinds.
(A) full (B) grow (C) crowd (D) held (E) smell
Ans : (A)

14. They have ………… us to find another alternative.
(A) tell (B) spoken (C) ask (D) advised (E) help
Ans : (D)

15. Pratik was …… for a bus.
(A) thinking (B) waiting (C) telling (D) reaching (E) jumping
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 16 to 25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is No Error the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore errors of punctuation if any).

16. Meghalaya is (A) / also one of (B) / the north-eastern states (C) / of our country. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

17. Santosh has volunteered (A) / to help in organising (B) / the Republic Day function (C) / about his locality. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

18. The actor’s friends (A) / and family had (B) / decided to throw a (C) / surprise party for him. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

19. Health experts since all (A) / over the country were (B) / invited to attend the (C) / conference in the city. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

20. They had (A) / to mortgage their (B) / house in order to (C) / bear these expenses. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

21. They had informed (A) / us that their (B) / Chennai trip was (C) / cancel due to the strike. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

22. All the students (A) / had to attend for the (B) / industrial visit as (C) / it was compulsory. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

23. The king was (A) / amused by the (B) / jester’s response (C) / to his question. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

24. The boy was (A) / accused of stealing (B) / money as well goods (C) / from the shop. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

25. She was be asked to (A) / write a report about (B) / the meeting that (C) / she attended yesterday. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct as your answer.’

26. She has presented (A) her views (B) in a very unique (C) fashion. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

27. She misplaced (A) the book before (B) she could (C) reed (D) it. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

28. There were more (A) than five thousend (B) people (C) in the auditorium. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

29. He has won many awards (A) for his research (B) in the field (C) of ecnomics. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

30. Dadar is none (A) of the most (B) populated areas (C) in Mumbai city. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph then answer the questions given below them.
(1) “Why waste time sharpening your weapons when there’s no danger in sight ?” said the fox, “You’re being foolish”.
(2) A wild boar was sharpening his tusks against a tree.
(3) “My tusks are my weapons,” said the boar, “I am sharpening them so that I can defend myself from any danger.”
(4) Frightened by the boar’s sharpened tusks, he turned towards the fox instead and preyed on him.
(5) A fox passing by, asked him what he was doing.
(6) Just then a tiger appeared on the scene.

31. Which of the following should be the first sentence in the rearrangement ?
(A) 6 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 2
Ans : (E)

32. Which of the following should be the second sentence in the rearrangement ?
(A) 5 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 4 (E) 1
Ans : (A)

33. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence in the rearrangement ?
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 1
Ans : (E)

34. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence in the rearrangement ?
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 1 (E) 5
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following should be the last (sixth) sentence in the rearrangement ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1 (E) 6
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36 to 50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words / phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

A man called Ramaya lived in a small village. Despite being a nice man, he did not have any friends. It was well known in the town that anyone unfortunate enough to look at him first thing in the morning would not be able to have food that day. That was why no one in the town liked encountering Ramaya in the morning, if they could help it. As soon as the king heard this rumour he decided to try it out himself.

He summoned Ramaya to the palace and ordered him to sleep in a room adjacent to his bedchamber. Ramaya had no choice but to follow the king’s order. He feared that the rumour would come true. The next
morning, the first thing the king did after waking up, was to take a look at Ramaya. When the king reached the breakfast table, he saw that the royal chef had forgotten to prepare his favourite dish. This angered him and he refused to have breakfast. After finishing a few important duties in the court, the king went to the dining hall for lunch. The food arrived piping hot. The king had hardly picked up the first morsel when he caught sight of a fly in the food. He left the table in disgust and when the food was prepared again for him, he found that he had lost his appetite. At the dinner table, an ignorant minister started eating before the king had started. This offended the king. He stormed out of the dining hall and refused to come back. As a result, the king could not eat anything at all that day. The enraged king was now convinced that Ramaya was really jinxed. He ordered that Ramaya be hanged. In those days the king’s word was the law. The soldiers had no option but to take Ramaya to the gallows. While on their way to the gallows, they met the court jester. He heard the story from Ramaya. The jester felt that it was an unfair decision and that none of this was Ramaya’s fault. He came up with a plan to save Ramaya from being hanged. He whispered something in Ramaya’s ears. Ramaya nodded before being whisked away.

It was mandatory to grant one last wish to the person who was being hanged. When the soldiers asked Ramaya about his last wish, he asked them to convey a message to the king. He also requested that he be hanged only after hearing the king’s response. “Tell the king that while it may be true that anyone who sees my face first thing in the morning does not get anything to eat that day, it’s also true that if anyone sees the king’s face first thing in the morning, as I did, he has to lose his life. So who’s the greater jinx - the king or I ?” said Ramaya.

On hearing the message, the king was stunned. He realised his foolishness and ordered his soldiers to stop the execution. He summoned Ramaya and offered him gifts. He also requested Ramaya not to say anything about the incident to the public. He was sure that the people of the village wouldn’t take well to the idea of having a jinxed person for a ruler. Ramaya agreed. When the villagers saw Ramaya returning with the gifts, they assumed that the rumour was false and that the king had given the gifts to Ramaya as compensation. They were ashamed of their behaviour and swore that they would never ignore Ramaya.

36. Why had the king summoned Ramaya ?
(A) He wanted to have Ramaya executed
(B) He wanted all the villagers to realize their mistake and be friends with Ramaya
(C) He wanted to test the court jester’s intelligence
(D) He wanted to see Ramaya’s face, the first thing every morning
(E) He wanted to verify whether the rumour about Ramaya was true or false
Ans : (E)

37. According to the rumour, what would happen if someone saw Ramaya’s face, first thing in the morning ?
(A) That person would not get a chance to eat, the whole day
(B) That person would be executed by the king
(C) That person would eat the whole day
(D) That person would receive gifts from the king
(E) That person would become an outcast in the village
Ans : (A)

38. Why did the king refuse to eat breakfast ?
(A) The king had seen Ramaya’s face, first thing in the morning
(B) The royal chef had forgotten to cook the king’s favourite dish
(C) The royal chef had forgotten to prepare Ramaya’s favourite dish
(D) One of the ministers had insulted the king at the breakfast table
(E) The king was on a diet
Ans : (D)

39. What did the king do when he caught sight of a fly in the food during lunch ?
(A) He ignored it and finished the lunch
(B) He fired the chef and asked him to throw the food
(C) He simply left the dining hall in disgust
(D) He ordered his soldiers to kill Ramaya
(E) He asked his ministers to cook another meal
Ans : (C)

40. When was the king convinced that Ramaya was jinxed ?
(A) When he realised that he had not eaten the whole day after he had seen Ramaya’s face the first thing in the morning
(B) When he realised that each time he saw Ramaya, he fell sick
(C) When he heard the rumour that anyone who saw Ramaya’s face first thing in the morning would not get a chance to eat the whole day
(D) When he saw that the chef had not prepared his favourite dish on the day he had seen Ramaya’s face the first thing in the morning
(E) When the soldiers went to him with Ramaya’s final wish
Ans : (A)

41. Which of the following is true according to the given passage ?
(A) Ramaya had many friends in the village
(B) The king had dinner on the day he saw Ramaya’s face first thing in the morning
(C) Ramaya told the villagers that the king was jinxed
(D) One of the ministers had started eating before the king during dinner
(E) None is true
Ans : (D)

42. Arrange the following incidents in a chronological order as they occurred in the passage.
(1) The court jester met Ramaya
(2) Ramaya received gifts from the king
(3) Ramaya slept at the palace
(4) The villagers realised their mistake
(A) 1324 (B) 3214 (C) 3241 (D) 3142 (E) 3124
Ans : (E)

43. What was Ramaya’s last wish ?
(A) He wanted to have a meal with the king
(B) He wanted to talk to the court jester
(C) He wanted to pass on a message to the king
(D) He wanted to speak to a minister
(E) Not mentioned in the passage
Ans : (C)

44. What was the king’s request to Ramaya ?
(A) That Ramaya must accept that he is unlucky
(B) That Ramaya must tell the villagers that the king is very kind
(C) That Ramaya must not tell the villagers that a minister had insulted the king
(D) That Ramaya must not tell the villagers about the incident
(E) That Ramaya must not tell anyone about the gifts he had received
Ans : (D)

45. Who helped save Ramaya from being hanged ?
(A) The court jester
(B) The king
(C) The soldiers
(D) The villagers
(E) The chef
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 46 to 48) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in the meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

46. Adjacent to
(A) Far away (B) Beside (C) Opposite to (D) Same as (E) Below
Ans : (B)

47. Caught sight of
(A) Searched for (B) Forgot about (C) Suddenly noticed (D) Held (E) Nabbed
Ans : (C)

48. Unfair
(A) Dark (B) Unhappy (C) Unaware (D) Unreasonable (E) Rational
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 49 and 50) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

49. Refused
(A) Unused (B) Remembered (C) Agreed (D) Invited (E) Declined
Ans : (B)

50. Ordered
(A) Requested (B) Unplanned (C) Punished (D) Silenced (E) Explained
Ans : (A)

Tuesday, May 29, 2012

Bank of India Officers Recruitment in North east states

Bank of India has published a notification for recruitment of officers in North east states.

This special recruitment project 2012-13 from Bank of India is only for vacancies in North East states - Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram, Sikkim & Tripura.

Candidates from other states can also apply but initial posting would be at the above said places only.

Position & Vacancies:

General Banking Officer (scale I) – 47 posts (Gen –21, OBC – 9, SC – 14, ST – 3)


Online application registration from May 25 to June 7, 2012
Interviews could be held during July/Aug 2012


If you are looking to apply, it is necessary to posses the following conditions,
  • Should be 21 – 30 yrs of age, as on 1.07.2011 
  • Must have completed graduation from a recog. university
  • To have secured,
      • Section-wise score of 24 (gen) or 21 (SC/ST/OBC/PWD)


From the applications received, Bank of India would shortlist only those candidates in the ratio of 1:3 & those who and rank sufficiently high in the order of merit.

While the total marks for Interview shall be 100 marks, minimum qualifying is 50% (45% for SC/ST/OBC)


Banks had agreed to lower the application fees in a recent meeting.Accordingly Bank of India seems to have implemented as the fee is fixed at Rs.100 (Gen/OBC) & Rs.20(SC/ST)
  • After making the payment with the appropriate challan at any Bank of India branches before June 7, head over to
  • Fill in the online application by logging with your IBPS exam details
  • Submit the form & remember to take a print of the generated application that has to be produced at the time of Interview

Eligible candidates are visit the Bank of India`s recruitment notice  from the bank website here

Bank of Baroda 2000 clerks recruitment.

Bank of Baroda (BoB) has released the 2000 clerks recruitment.

Bank of Baroda was the first PSB to announce recruitment for their vacancies through IBPS CWE platform.


Clerks - 2000 posts (across various states)


Revised: Online application available from May 28 to June 6, 2012
Interview dates shall be intimated later

Eligibility :

The conditions that candidates must satisfy to apply are for Bank of Baroda clerk recruitment 2012 are,
  • Age limit : 18 - 28 yrs as on 1.08.2011 (+3yrs for OBC, +5yrs for SC/ST)
  • Revised: 60% in SSLC/10th OR 50% in HSC/12th OR pass in degree from recognized university, as of Aug 1, 2011
  • To have appeared for exam in a centre located within the state you apply for
  • Be able to read/write/speak english & local language of that state.
  • Should posses working knowledge of computers
  • State-wise & Category wise TWS are given in the BOB advt (see below) & only those with or above it are eligible.


The selection procedure is similar to PO recruitments in banks.Based on the number of applications from each state, a merit list shall be prepared & only those ranking at the top shall be shortlisted for Interview in the ratio of 1:4 (Gen) & 1:5 (others)


Those who have already applied in the month of March/April need not apply again.

The fees of Rs.150 (Gen/OBC) or Rs.50(SC/ST) can be paid Online or at any Bank of Baroda branch by downloading the cash voucher from the website.Payments have to be made only between 28.05.2012 to 11.06.2012.

After submitting the online application form, candidates have to note the & password for future reference & remember to take a print of the generated application.

For Bank of baroda`s clerk recruitment, download the latest notification from their site.

Friday, May 25, 2012

IBPS Recruitment 2012 Specialist Officer Cutoffs Released

IBPS conducted the common written examination for recruitment of Specialist Officer (SOs) on 13th March 2012 for 19 participating banks. The IBPS exam targeted to recruit specialist officers in various fields like IT, Technical, Agriculture, Legal, Marketing, HR, etc. and also in Rashtrabhasha for the banks.

List of Participating Banks for CWE:
  1. Allahabad Bank
  2. Andhra Bank
  3. Bank of Baroda
  4. Bank of India
  5. Bank of Maharashtra
  6. Canara Bank
  7. Central Bank of India
  8. Corporation Bank
  9. Dena Bank
  10. Indian Bank
  11. Indian Overseas Bank
  12. Oriental Bank of Commerce
  13. Punjab National Bank
  14. Punjab & Sind Bank
  15. Syndicate Bank
  16. Union Bank of India
  17. United Bank of India
  18. UCO Bank
  19. Vijaya Bank
Now IBPS announced the cutoffs in two stages to become eligible for specialist officer post.These cutoffs will be applied-
(i) on standard scores in individual tests.
(ii) on Total Weighted Standard Score.

1)Standard Scores In Individual Test-Candidates have to score minimum of 24 marks(Gen) or 21 marks (SC/ST/OBC/PWD) in each section i.e. Reasoning,English Language,General Awareness,Quantitative Aptitude,Professional Knowledge.

2) Total Weighted Standard Score-The Total Weighted Standard Score (TWSS) can be calculated for candidates who qualified in the each individual test as per the cutoffs.

Total Weighted Standard Score can be calculated as-
Standard Scores obtained in [Reasoning + (½ English Language) + General Awareness/ Quantitative Aptitude + (1 ½ Professional Knowledge)]

Apart from scoring 24 marks(Gen) & 21 marks(SC/ST/OBC/PWD) in each test, candidated must have to score these cutoff marks to become eligible for specialist vacancies which is being announced by IBPS now.

Post CodePostGeneralSC/ST/OBC/PWD
1I.T. Officer (Scale-I)128120
2Agricultural Field Officer (Scale I)112104
3Rajbhasha Adhikari (Scale I)9690
4Law Officer (Scale I)121113
5Technical Officer (Scale I)120113
6HR/Personnel Officer (Scale I)124114
7Marketing Officer (Scale I)114107
8I.T. Officer (Scale-II)134125
9Law Officer (Scale II)121113
View complete details about specialist officer vacancies here.

Syndicate Bank Recruitment of 1000 Probationary Clerks

Syndicate Bank invites applications for the post of Probationary Clerks from Indian citizens who have taken the Common Written Examination for Clerical Cadre conducted by IBPS in Nov./Dec.2011 and have a valid Score card issued by IBPS subject to fulfillment of other eligibility criteria.
For details regarding vacancies and cut-off marks State/UT-wise, category-wise, eligibility criteria, fees/intimation charges, application procedure, selection procedure, reservation/relaxation etc., please visit the Bank’s website between 01.06.2012 and 15.06.2012.
The Clerical recruitment would be on State/UT-wise basis. It will therefore be necessary that candidates apply for vacancies of State/UT from which they have appeared for the Common Written Examination in which they have qualified.
Candidates should possess proficiency in the Official /Regional Language of the State/UT for which vacancies he/she wishes to apply (To read, write & speak).


Payment of Application Fees at Syndicate Bank Branches           01.06.2012 To 15.06.2012
Opening date for Online Registration                                           01.06.2012
Last Date for Online Registration
(Including for candidates from far-flung areas )                            15.06.2012
The number of vacancies and also the number of reserved vacancies is provisional and may vary according to actual requirements of the Bank.

Friday, May 18, 2012


1) This agency issued guidelines on distance marketing of products on 6 April 2011 to protect the interest of people who buy policies over phone or Internet. Identify the agency.
d. DoT
2) In India’s first sale of rupee perpetual bonds by a non-finance company Rs 1500 crore ($332 million) was raised. Name the non-finance company.

a. Tata Steel
b. Pantallons Retail
c. RIL
d. Maruti Suzuki
3) Which of the following Indian cricket players took the highest number of wickets in the recently concluded ICC World Cup 2011 along with Pakistan’s Shahid Afridi?
a. Yuvraj Singh
b. Zaheer Khan
c. Munaf Patel
d. Harbhajan Singh
4) Union Sports Ministry on 6 April 2011 formed a committee to fine-tune the draft National Sports Development Bill. Who is heading the committee?
a. Justice Mukul Mudgal
b. Justice Tej Pratap Singh Mann
c. Justice Gurdev Singh
d. Justice Jaswant Singh Phogat
5) Name the cricketer who beat Michael Clarke by a comfortable 15-vote margin to bag the Allan Border Medal besides being named Australia’s ODI Player of the Year in Feb 2010?
a. Shane Watson
b. Simon Katich
c. Mitchell Johnson
d. Sachin Tendulkar
6) Record food grain production helped to reduce food inflation to a four month low for the week ending 26 March 2011. What was the inflation percentage for the week?
a. 9.18%
b. 9.25%
c. 9.21%
d. 9.36%
7) Praveen Kumar Tripathi took over as the Chief Secretary of which of the following governments on 4 April 2011?
a. Delhi Government
b. Haryana Government
c. Uttar Pradesh Government
d. Uttarakhand Government
8) The Union Government gifted a Kendriya Vidyalaya to a nondescript village Indrapura to which of the following Indian states?
a. Bihar
b. Odisha
c. Rajasthan
d. Madhya Pradesh
9) The Supreme Court on 5 April 2011 passed an order to lift iron export ban imposed by which of the following Indian states on 26 July 2010 and also ordered it to implement the new rules for regulating iron ore mining and transportation?
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Karnataka
d. Odisha
10) To enhance credit worthiness of economically weaker sections and LIG households, a Mortgage Risk Guarantee Fund was announced to be created under which of the following scheme or Yojana?
a. Rajiv Awas Yojana
b. Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana
c. Indira Awas Yojana
d. Mahatama Gandhi NREGA
11) Which agency issued guidelines on distance marketing of products on 6 April 2011 to protect the interest of people who buy policies over phone or Internet?
d. DoT
12) Buyer's Credit was launched by the Commerce and Industry Minister, Anand Sharma, on 6 April 2011 to boost project exports from India. Under which of the following was Buyer’s Credit launched?
a. National Export Insurance Account
b. Export-Import Bank of India
c. Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India
d. Reserve Bank of India
13) Read the two statements mentioned with regard to the budgetary allocations for addressing environmental concerns.
1. The budget proposed that the solar lantern used in far-flung villages will attract no duty from 10 per cent charged earlier.
2. To provide green and clean transportation for the masses, National Mission for Hybrid and Electric Vehicles will be launched in the year 2011 in collaboration with all stakeholders. Which of them is true?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 & 2
d. None of the above
14) 21 year old Marjan Kalhor is the first Iranian woman to have entered an Olympic event. She is a participant in the 2010 Winter Olympics that began in Vancouver on 12 Feb 2010. Which sport is she associated with?
a. Ski
b. Shot put
c. Cycling
d. Bobsleigh
15) With his victory in the men’s large hill ski jump on 20 Feb 2010 at the Vancouver Olympics, he became the first person to win four individual gold ski jumping medals. Name this sportsperson.
a. Simon Ammann (Switzerland)
b. Ahonen Janne (Finland)
c. Alexander Nicholas (USA)
d. Bardal Anders (Norway)
16) The Indian Government in April 2011 issued a notice to which of the following companies to terminate licences for Kerala, West Bengal and Assam for delay in roll- out of services in these three circles?
a. Sistema Shyam Teleservices
b. Tata Teleservices
c. Reliance
17) Which Italian luxury sports car makers on 6 April 2011 announced its entry into the Indian market where it will sell its high-performance cars priced between Rs1.20 crore and Rs1.43 crore?
a. Maserati
b. Bentley
c. Aston Martin
d. Maybach
18) Who did HDFC Bank, the country's second-largest private sector lender appoint in March 2011 to head its investment banking division?
a. Rakesh Singh
b. Charul Madan
c. Gaurav Khungar
d. Atul Singh
19) Gangaur, a festival which marks the union of Lord Shiva and his consort, Goddess Parvati is celebrated for 18 days from the day after Holi in which of the following Indian states?
a. Rajasthan
b. Karnataka
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Uttaranchal
20) Read the following statements with regard to the allocation in the Educational sector as proposed by Union Budget 2011-12.
1. For Sarva Siksha Abhiyan the allocation was increased by 40 percent to 21000 crore rupees.
2. All institutions of higher learning will be connected through optical fibers by March 2012.
3. 500 crore rupees was proposed to be provided for national skill development fund.
4. For the needy scheduled castes ad scheduled tribe candidates studying in class-IX and Xth pre-matric scholarship scheme was proposed to be introduced. Which of the above mentioned statements is not true?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3 & 4
d. 4
21) Scientists recently developed a computer that could be controlled by the power of thought. It would help people unable to speak or move. What is the name of the technology which they used to develop this kind of computer?
a. electrocortiography
b. symbian C++
c. java
d. flash lite
22) Which of the following companies bought the Pringles brand from Procter & Gamble Co for $1.5 billion?
a. Diamond Foods Inc
b. PepsiCo's Frito-Lay
c. Emerald Nuts
d. Kettle Potato Chips
23) Online marketplace eBay India, in association with leading apparel brand Reebok auctioned a bat autographed by Indian cricketer Mahendra Singh Dhoni. The proceeds of the auction will go to which of the following NGOs?
a. Oxfem
b. CRY
c. All Bengal Women’s Union
24) Which Indian hockey player was in April 2011 named captain of the Indian Hockey team the upcoming Sultan Azlan Shah Cup scheduled to be played in Malaysia from 5-15 May 2011?
a. Arjun Halappa
b. Rajpal Singh
c. Bharat Kumar Chetri
d. Mohd. Amir Khan
25) Under the Godfrey Phillips Zonal Bravery Awards given away by the former ruler of Jodhpur, Gaj Singh in Jaipur on 5 April 2011, which of the following NGOs was honoured with the Amodhini Award of Rs.1 lakh?
a. Udyogini
b. Charities Aid Foundation
c. CRY
d. Akhil Bharatiya Vanavasi Kalyan Ashram
26) The Basic Customs Duty exemption was proposed to be extended to which of the following sectors?
a. art and antiquities for exhibition or display in private art galleries
b. Cinematographic film, factory-built ambulances
c. syringes and needles
d. agricultural machinery
27) A massive Tsunami caused by a devastating earthquake of the 8.9 magnitude hit about 400 km north-east of Tokyo, capital of Japan. Where is the Pacific Tsunami Warning System headquartered? 
a. Hawai
b. Tokyo
c. Manila
d. Jakarta
28) Which of the following companies announced on 6 April 2011 that it won contract to provide broadband internet connectivity to Indian Railways through state-run RailTel Corp of India Ltd?
a. DEL
b. IBM
c. Infosys
d. HCL Infosystems
29) Which super luxury carmaker on 7 April 2011 unveiled Continental GT sedan in India?
a. Ferrati
b. Bentley
c. Maybach
d. Maserati
30) What amount of money was allocated for Bharat Nirman?
a. 1000 crore
b. 58000 crore
c. 55438 crore
d. 14362 crore
31) Who defeated Tamarine Tanasugarn on 15 Feb 2010 to retain the Pattaya Open title?
a. Vera Zvonareva of Russia
b. Sabine Lisicki of Germany,
c. Ayumi Morita of Japan
d. Kimiko Date Krumm of Japan
32) A massive Tsunami caused by a devastating earthquake of the 8.9 magnitude hit about 400 km north-east of Tokyo, capital of japan. What are the possible factors which can cause Tsunami?
i)An Earthquake
ii) A landslide
iii) A volcanic eruption or explosion
iv) Impact by a meteorite
Please choose the right option
a. i, ii, iii and iv
b. i and ii only
c. ii and iii only
d. i and iv only
33) Which of the following Indian cricket is the most heavily insured player for the forthcoming Indian Premier League (IPL) 4 T-20 tournament which begins on 8 April 2011?
a. Sachin Tendulkar
b. Yuvraj Singh
c. M S Dhoni
d. Virender Sehwag
34) The Union Budget for 2011-12 proposed lowering of qualifying age for tax relief for senior citizens from 65 years to _?
a. 55
b. 58
c. 60
d. 62
35) Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee proposed to increase the Income Tax Exemption Limit for individual tax payers from 1 lakh 60 to _?
a. 1 lakh 80 thousand
b. 1 lakh 90 thousand
c. 2 lakh
d. 2 lakh 20 thousand
36) Noted Social worker Anna Hazare on 5 April 2011 started his hunger strike  at Jantar Mantar in New Delhi to protest against the reported delay in bringing in which of the following bills to effectively deal with corruption?
a. Lokpal Bill
b. The Competition (Amendment) Bill
c. The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Bill
d. The Appropriation (No.3 ) Bill
37) Who became the world number one badminton player?
a. Saina Nehwal
b. Wang Xin
c. Sania Mirza
d. Wang Shixian
38) When is the National Youth Day observed?
a. January 14
b. February 14
c. August 31
d. January 12
39) What is Tejas?
a. Spacecraft
b. Missile
c. Submarine
d. Light combat aircraft
40) Who is the Chairperson of the Central Board Film Certification?
a. Sharmila Tagore
b. Karan Johar
c. Nafisa Ali
d. Om Puri
e. None of these
41) Ali Akbar Salehi is the foreign minister of
a. Israel
b. Iran
c. Afghanistan
d. Indonesia
42) Who is the new chief of Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)?
a. AP Singh
b. Arun Shourie
c. Sanjeev Tripathi
d. BK Gupta
43) According to an extensive genetic study on modern humans, two conclusions were drawn out.
i) There is an enormous amount of diversity in the African hunter-gatherer populations.
ii) The genetic diversity among 27 present-day African populations originated in southern Africa and progressed to northern Africa. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. Both i and ii
b. Neither I and ii
c. Only i
d. Only ii
44) Which one of the following Indian states recently released a Braille version of the RTI (Right to Information) Act and its rules for the benefit of visually challenged?
a. Gujarat
b. Bihar
c. Haryana
d. Madhya Pradesh
45) Roger Federer won his fourth Australian Open Tennis Championship and 16th Grand Slam on 31 Jan 2010. Who did he defeat in the final of the Australian Open 2010?
a. Rafael Nadal
b. Andy Murray
c. Fred Perry
d. Rod Laver
46) Which of the following Bollywood Actress won the Best Actress trophy at the 13th London Asian Film Festival for her performance in Onir’s I AM?
a. Nandita Das
b. Juhi Chawla
c. Tabu
d. Konkona Sen Sharma
47) In tiger census 2010, 
i) Pugmarks were used as the only indicator of tiger numbers.
ii) An advanced Scientific process was adopted which included video trapping and use of satellite data. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Choose the right option:
a. Only i is incorrect
b. Only ii is incorrect
c. Both i and ii are incorrect
d. Both i and ii are not incorrect
48) India defeated Pakistan by 29 runs in the semi finals of the ICC World Cup 2011 played at Mohali. Who was declared man of the match of the high powered game?
a. Saeed Ajmal
b. Sachin Tendulkar
c. Munaf Patel
d. Wahab Riaz
49) Which of the following bodies put off indefinitely the new rules governing unwanted telemarketing calls which were supposed to be implemented from 21 March 2011?
a. Department of Telecommunication (DoT)
b. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
c. Indian Ministry of communication & Technology
d. HRD Ministry
50) The Indian government in March 2011 conferred the Miniratna status on which of the following PSUs?
a. National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC)
b. Air India Charters Ltd
c. Cement Corporation of India
d. HMT Machine Tools Ltd
1) B 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) A 15)16) A 17) C 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) A 27) A28) D 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) A 33) C 34) C 35) A 36) A 37) B 38) D 39) D 40)41) B 42) C 43) A 44) A 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) B 50) A

Wednesday, May 16, 2012


NABARD has issued an advertisement in the news papers for General Public regarding the new procedure for recruitment of Officers and Assistants in Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) (Gramin Bank).
 The advertisement says :

Government of India, Ministry of Finance, Department of Financial Services has decided to introduce a Common Written Examination (CWE) to be conducted by Institute of Banking Personal Selection (IBPS) for recruitment of Officers and Office Assistants (Multipurpose) in RRBs. The IBPS will conduct the examination and issue a valid Score Card to all the qualifying candidates, which will be pre-requisite for candidates to to apply for above mentioned cadres in the RRBs, when the RRBs advertise the recruitment. Details can had from Employment News and other news papers, as also from the web sites of IBPS and concerned RRBs.
Thus it shows that Government has decided to make a common examination for all the candidates want to apply in Gramin Bank, like it is currently applying for most of the Nationalised Public Sector Banks. This will be a good opportunity for candidates to appear for only one examination in the years and get quality for all the RRBs.


1.          A Passive threat to computer security is-
        (1) Malicious Intent              
(2) Sabotage
(3) Accidental Errors             
(4) Espionage Agents
(5) None of these
2.          ____ allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and its services such as the Web and e-mail.
(1) TCP/IP                                  
(2) Ethernet
(3) WAP                                     
(4) Token ring
(5) None of these

3.          ‘DOS’ floppy disk does not have____.
(1) A Boot Record                  
(2) A File Allocation Table
(3) A Root Directory              
(4) Virtual Memory
(5) BIOS
4.          ‘MICR’ technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to ____.
(1) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
(2) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition
(3) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition
(4) Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition
(5) None of these
5.          All the information collected during database development is stored in a ____.
(1) repository                          
(2) data warehouse
(3) RAD                                      
 (4) CASE
(5) None of these
6.          The ____ component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database.
(1) data extraction                 
(2) end-user query tool
(3) end-user presentation tool
(4) data store                           
(5) None of these
7.          The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone is ____.
(1) Biometrics                         
 (2) Compression
(3) Encryption                          
(4) Ergonomics
(5) None of these
8.          The word FTP stands for-
(1) File Transfer Protocol   
 (2) File Transit Protocol
(3) File Typing Protocol        
(4) File Transfer Protocol
(5) None of these
9.          This ____ tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and provides access to data.
(1) Client                   
(2) Applications/Web server
(3) Enterprise server            
(4) DBA
(5) None of these
10.      A DVD-RAM is similar to a ____, except it has storage capacities up to 5.2 GB.
(1) CD-R                                     
(2) Floppy disk
(3) CD-RW                                 
(4) Hard disk
(5) None of these
11.      All of the following are basic principles of networks, except-
(1) each computer must have a network card
(2) there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices
(3) there must be at least one connecting device
(4) each computer must have software that supports the movement of information
(5) None of these
12.      ____ are used to identify a user who returns to a Website.
(1) Cookies                               
(2) Plug-ins
(3) Scripts                                  
(4) ASPs
(5) None of these
13.      If you wanted to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol would you use?
(1) ARP                                       
(2) RARP
(3) ICMP                                    
(4) PING
(5) PONG
14.      The term, ‘hypertext’ means-
(1) Non-sequential writing 
(2) Hypermedia
(3) Blinking text     
(4) Text with heavy formatting
(5) None of these
15.      Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas?
(1) Cipher                                  
(2) Warded
(3) Device                                  
(4) Tumbler
(5) Type lock
16.      What is the name of protocol used in eliminate loops?
(1) Switching                            
(2) ISL
(3) Frame tagging                  
 (4) Spanning Tree Protocol
(5) None of these
17.      In networking terminology UTP means –
(1) Unshielded Twisted Pair
(2) Ubiquitous Teflon Port
(3) Uniformly Terminating Port
(4) Unshielded T-Connector
(5) None of these
18.      In OSI network architecture, the dialogue control and token management are responsibility of-
(1) Session layer                     
(2) Network layer
(3) Transport layer                 
(4) Data link layer
(5) None of the above
19.      A ‘C’ data structure called a structure is a group of items in which each item is identified by its own identifier, each of which is known as a member of a structure. Member is also known as-
(1) Information                       
(2) Field
(3) Record                                 
(4) Data type
(5) None of these
20.      Multithread means-
(1) Program do more than one thing at a time
(2) More than one program do one thing at a time
(3) Both are correct               
(4) Both are incorrect
(5) None of these
21.      A page fault occurs?
(1) when the page is not in the memory
(2) when the page is in  the memory
(3) when the process enters the blocked state
(4) when the process is in the ready state
(5) None of these
22.      “Each packet contains the full source and destination address.” This statement indicates which of the following?
(1) Virtual Circuit                    
(2) Datagram
(3) Data link                              
(4) FDDI
(5) None of these 
23.      Data bus is-
(1) Unidirectional                   
(2) Bidirectional
(3) Both (1) & (2)                   
 (4) Multidirectional
(5) None of these
24.      Which of the following is a type of ISDN (Integrated Service Digital Network)?
(1) Narrow bank                     
(2) Broad band
(3) Both (1) & (2)                    
(4) Virtual Circuit
(5) None of these 
25.      Which of the following is a browser to view a web page?
(1) Mosaic                                 
(2) Netscape
(3) Internet Explorer           
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
26.      A graph is a collection of-
(1) Row and columns            
(2) Vertices and edges
(3) Equations                           
(4) Identity
(5) None of these
27.      CDMA is used in-
(1) Wireless and local loop
(2) Allocating a wireless channel
(3) Both (1) & (2)                    
(4) Local loop
(5) None of these
28.      Number of arcs incident to a node is called its-
(1) Level                                     
(2) Predecessor
(3) Degree                                                
(4) Successor
(5) None of these
29.      OSPF means-
(1) Open shortest path finite protocol
(2) Open shortest path finite protocol
(3) Open slotted path finite protocol
(4) Open slotted path first protocol
(5) None of these
30.      Binding the same name to multiple operations whose signatures differ in number or types of arguments?
(1) Overloading                       
(2) Origin class
(3) Object model                    
(4) Package
(5) None of these
31.      What is the name of the chip which has more than one processor on it?
(1) Parallel chip                       
(2) Multi-processor chip
(3) Transputer                         
(4) Parallel processor
(5) None of these
32.      In windows-
(1) Docking views may be docked
(2) Docking views may be float
(3) Docking views may be docked or float
(4) All of the above                               
(5) None of these
33.      ____ performs relocations function?
(1) Absolute loader               
(2) Direct linking loader
(3) Relocating loader            
(4) Linkage editor
(5) None of these
34.      A central computer surrounded by one or more satellite computers is called a-
(1) Bus network                      
(2) Ring network
(3) Star network                     
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
35.      Segmentation –
(1) is a memory management scheme that supports user view of memory
(2) logical address space is collection of segments
(3) logical address consists of two tuple < segment-number, offset>.
(4) All of the above                               
(5) None of these 
36.      Which of the following is a major component of the telephone system?
(1) Local loop                           
(2) Trunks
(3) Switching office                               
(4) All of these
(5) None of these 
37.      Function is invoked by-
(1) Function                             
(2) Declaration
(3) Definition                           
(4) Prototype
(5) None of these
38.      The ACCEPT command in SQL?
(1) Creates a customized prompt when accepting user input
(2) Explicitly defines a NUMBER or DATE data type variable
(3) Hides user input for security reasons
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
39.      How many fields are required to represent a header node of a graph?
(1) 3                                             
(2) 2
(3) 4                                             
(4) 5
(5) None of these
40.      Which of the following is not used as a data structure?
(1) Array                                    
(2) Linked list
(3) Graph                                   
(4) Directory
(5) None of these 
41.      Which of the following is an operating system call?
(1) CREATE                                                
(2) LINK
(3) SYSTEM                               
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
42.      In C++, by default, the members of a class are-
(1) Public                                   
(2) Private
(3) Both public and private 
(4) Only Public
(5) None of these
43.      In core banking systems:
(1) Store and forward of transaction is done
(2) Branch server is not required
(3) Local database is not required
(4) Transaction cannot happen from a non-home branch
(5) None of these 
44.      MV command in Unix changes-
(1) Only the directory
(2) Only the directory entry and i-node
(3) Only the i-node number
(4) All of the above                               
(5) None of these
45.      E-Commerce refers to-
(1) Electrical commerce       
(2) Electronic commerce
(3) Evolutionary commerce              
(4) Effective commerce       
(5) None of these
46.      Graphs can be implemented using-
(i) Arrays    (ii) Linked list      (iii) Stack              (iv) Queue
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)                   
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iii)                          
(4) (i) and (iv)
(5) None of these
47.      Thrashing-
(1) Always occur on large computers
(2) is a natural consequence of virtual memory systems
(3) Can always be avoided by swapping
(4) Can be caused by poor paging algorithm
(5) None of these
48.      The process of converting analog signals into digital signals so they can be processed by a receiving computer is referred as-
(1) modulation                        
(2) demodulation
(3) synchronizing                    
(4) digitizing
(5) None of these
49.      The relational database environment has all of the following components except-
(1) Users                                    
(2) Separate files
(3) Database                            
(4) Database administrator
(5) None of these
50.      Primary key-
(1) Denote a candidate key that is chosen by the database designer as the principal means of identifying entities with in an entity set
(2) Attributes names of all primary key are unique
(3) Primary key specification is optional and good idea to specify primary key for each relation
(4) All of the above                              
 (5) None of these