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Showing posts with label REASONING. Show all posts
Showing posts with label REASONING. Show all posts

Tuesday, November 13, 2012

IBPS CLERKS CWE REASONING PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and hence form a group. Which is
the one that does not belong to that group?
1) Kitten
2) Goat
3) Calf
4) Foal
5) Lamb

2. In a certain code language 'do re me' means 'he is late', 'fa me la' means 'she is early' and 'so ti do' means 'he leaves soon'. Which word in that language means 'late'?
1) la
2) do
3) me
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

3. Deepika tells Shraddha "Your mother's father's son is the husband of my sister." How is Deepika related to Shraddha ?
1) Sister-in-law
2) Cousin
3) Aunt
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

4. If '+' means '÷', '÷' means '×', '×' means '−' and '−' means '+'. What will be the value of the following expression?
15 ÷ 5 × 9 + 3 − 6 = ?
1) 78
2) 72
3) 28
4) 30
5) None

5. If 'A' is substituted by 1, 'B' by 2 and so on upto 'Z' which is substituted by 26, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word DECAY?
1) 38
2) 41
3) 40
4) 37
5) None of these

6. Among five friends Mahesh is taller than Karan but not Yash. Hrithik is taller than Yash but not Abhishek. If they stand in increasing order of their heights, who will be first in line?
1) Abhishek
2) Yash
3) Karan
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

7. If 'table' is called 'chair', 'chair' is called 'cupboard', 'cupboard' is called 'chalk', 'chalk' is called 'book', 'book' is called 'duster' and 'duster' is called 'table', what does the teacher use to write on the black board?
1) book
2) cupboard
3) table
4) duster
5) None of these

8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) Bucket
2) Tap
3) Bottle
4) Glass
5) Pitcher

9. D is A's son. C is the mother of P and wife of D. How is A related to C?
1) Father
2) Uncle
3) Father-in-law
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

10. If E is coded as V, D is coded as Q, N is coded as Z, G is coded as T, R is coded as I and A is coded as M, which of the following will be the correct form of the word DANGER?
1) QMZTIV
2) QMZTVI
3) QMZITV
4) QZMTVI
5) None of these

Directions (Q.11-15): Read the following information and answer the questions given below.
Seven managers Sharma, Mishra, Singh, Kulkarni, Rao, Joshi and Nair are to conduct interviews simultaneously either alone or in pairs at four different locations - Surat, Chandigarh, Delhi and Lucknow. Only one wants to travel by rail, two prefer travelling by car and the rest travel by air.
i) Sharma is going to Lucknow but neither by car nor by air.
ii) Mishra prefers to travel by car.
iii) Neither Joshi nor Nair is going to Delhi.
iv) Only those going to Surat travel by road.
v) Kulkarni will assist his friend Mishra.
vi) The two managers who go to Delhi travel by air.

11. Where will Kulkarni conduct the interviews?
1) Surat
2) Lucknow
3) Chandigarh
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these

12. Who goes to Delhi?
1) Mishra-Kulkarni
2) Rao-Singh
3) Kulkarni-Joshi
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

13. Which of the following is true?
1) Kulkarni travels by air.
2) Nair will assist Rao.
3) Sharma conducts interviews alone.
4) Joshi goes to Chandigarh.
5) None of these

14. Who will conduct interviews at Chandigarh?
1) Nair
2) Singh
3) Rao
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

15. Which of the following pairs is different from the other four with regards to mode of travel?
1) Sharma-Mishra
2) Rao-Mishra
3) Nair-Rao
4) Kulkarni-Joshi
5) Sharma-Singh

Directions (Q.16-20): Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and
Give answer 1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer 2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the questions, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer 3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer 4) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and
Give answer 5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

16. Who is in the middle of the row comprising A, B, C, D and E?
I. B is to right of C, who is second from the left.
II. A is standing to the left of C, who is D's neighbour.

17. What is Shilpa's rank in the class?
I. The class strength is 45.
II. Shilpa is eight ranks below Mahesh who stood 17th.

18. Who runs the fastest among L, M, N and P?
I. P runs faster than L, who is the slowest.
II. M runs faster than N but slower than P.

19. On which day of the week did Satish watch a movie?
I. Satish only watches movie with his friends.
II. Satish went out for dinner on Tuesday.

20. How is Gita related to Ganesh?
I. Gita's brother is Ganesh's father's eldest son.
II. Ganesh's wife's mother-in-law is Gita's mother.

Directions(Q.21-25): In each of the questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer 1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer 2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer 3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer 4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Give answer 5) if both conclusions I and II follows.

21. Statements: All fish are birds.
Some hens are fish.
Conclusion: I. Some hens are birds.
II. No birds are hens.

22. Statements: Some shoes are coats.
Some coats are buttons.
Conclusion: I. No button is shoe.
II. Some shoes are buttons.

23. Statements: All bats are boys.
All boys are gloves.
Conclusion: I. Some gloves are bats.
II. All bats are gloves.

24. Statements: All puppies are tigers.
All kittens are tigers.
Conclusion: I. All puppies are kittens.
II. All tigers are puppies.

25. Statements: Some doctors are nurses.
All nurses are patients.
Conclusion: I. All doctors are patients.
II. Some patients are doctors.


ANSWERS:

1-2; 2-5; 3-3; 4-1; 5-1; 6-3; 7-1; 8-2; 9-4; 10-2;
11-1; 12-2; 13-5; 14-4; 15-3; 16-5; 17-2; 18-5; 19-4; 20-3;
21-1; 22-3; 23-5; 24-4; 25-2.

Sunday, September 2, 2012

BANK EXAMS REASONING PRACTICE QUESTIONS


                 Statements & Conclusions

Directions (1-5): In each of the qu-estion below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1): if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2): if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3): if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
Give answer (4): if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
Give answer (5): if both conclusion I and conclusion II follows.
1. Statements:
All jeeps are cars.
All cars are buses.
Some buses are trucks.
Conclusions:
I. Some jeeps are trucks.
II. All jeeps are buses.

2. Statements:
Some balls are rackets.
Some rackets are bats.
All bats are nets.
Conclusions:
I. No net is a ball.
II. All rackets are nets.

3. Statements:
All computers are printers.
All printers are staplers.
All staplers are scanners.
Conclusion:
I. All printers are scanners.
II. Some staplers are computers.

4. Statements:
No drum is guitar.
All guitars are violins.
Some violins are flutes.
Conclusions:
I. Some violins are guitars.
II. Some drums are flutes.

5. Statements:
All guns are cannons.
All arrows are cannons.
Some cannons are bows.
Conclusions:
I. Some guns are arrows.
II. Some arrows are bows.

Directions (6-10): In each of the question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true ev-en if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1): if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2): if only conclusion II follows
Give answer (3): if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
Give answer (4): if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
Give answer (5): if both conclusion I and conclusion II follows

6. Statements:
All stars are planets.
All planets are moons.
No moon is a sun.
Conclusions:
I. All stars are suns.
II. No moon is a star.

7. Statements:
Some computers are keyboards.
Some keyboards are wires.
Some wires are switches.
Conclusions:
I. Some computers are switches.
II. Some wires are computers.

8. Statements:
No cap is a hat.
All hats are feathers.
All feathers are papers.
Conclusions:
I. All hats are papers.
II. All feathers are caps.

9. Statements:
All nylons are cottons.
All cottons are wools.
Some wools are polyesters.
Conclusions:
I. Some cottons are wools.
II. Some wools are nylons.

10. Statements:
All calculators are watches.
All phones are watches.
All watches are televisions.
Conclusions:
I. All phones are televisions.
II. Some televisions are calculators.

Thursday, June 28, 2012

REASONING PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR BANK EXAMS

Sitting arrangement

Directions (1-5): study the following information to answer the given questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. No Two males (or) two females are immediate neighbors of each other.
A is wife of H. A sits third to the left of E. F sits second to the right of D. D is not an immediate neighbor of A or E. H and C are immediate neighbor of each other. F is not an immediate neighbor of his Wife B.

1. Which of the following is true about G?
1) G is male
2) G sits exactly between Fand H
3) G sits third to the left of E
4) G sits second to the right of B
5) none.

2. Who sits third to the left of B?
1) F
2) H
3) D
4) A
5) None.

3. How many people sit between B and F when counted in anti-clockwise direction from B?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
5) More than four.

4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) H
2) F
3) E
4) G
5) D

5. Which of the following groups consists of only female members of the group?
1) A,B,B
2) G,F,C
3) C,H,G
4) D,H,C
5) None.

Directions (6-10): A, M, D, P, R, T, B and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. M is third to the left of A who is second to the left of T. D is second to the right of H who is second to the right of T. R is second to the right of B. who is not an immediate neighbor of T.

6. Which of the following combina-tions represents the First and the Second to the left of B respectively?
1) MD
2) DH
3) AM
 4) AR
5) None

7. Who is to be right of T?
1) D
2) B
3) H
4) M
5) None

8. Who is the immediate left of H?
1) P
 2) M
3) T
4) R
5) Data inadequate

9. Who is second to the left of B?
1) D
2) H
3) M
4) Data inadequate
5) None

10. In which of the following combinations the third person is second to the left of the second person?
1) BAR
2) DBR
3) TPH
4) PMH
5) None.

Directions (11-15): Eight Friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. E is to the third to the left of G who is to the immediate right of B who is third to the left of A. H is second to the right of F who is not an immediate neighbor of E. D is not an immediate neighbor of B.

11. Who is second to the right of B?
1) F
2) A
3) H
4) D
5) None.

12. Which of the following pairs has the first person to the immediate left of second person?
1) GB
2) AF
3) CE
4) HD
5) None.

13. Which of the following is the correct position of B with respect to D?
1) Second to the right
2) second to the left
3) Third to the right
4) Third to the left
5) None.

14. Who sit between A and D?
1) F
2) E
3) G
4) B
5) None.

15. What is E's position with respect to 'C'?
1) To the immediate right
2) To the immediate left
3) Second to the right
4) Cannot be determine
5) None

Directions (16-20): P, Q, R, S, T, V, and W are seven members of a family each one of them has a different profession. Doctor, Teacher, Lawyer, Engineer, Architect, Charted Accountant and Banker and their incomes are different. There are two married couples in the group. R is the Doctor and earns more than the Engineer and the Lawyer. T is married to the Charted Accountant and she earns the least. No lady is either Lawyer or Engineer. Q the Teacher earns less than P the banker. W is married to Q and he earns more than S and P. V is not the Lawyer. The charted Accountant earns less than Lawyer but more than the Banker.

16. Who earns the maximum in the family?
1) V
2) W
 3) R
4) S
5) None.

17. Which of the following is a pair of married couple?
1) RT
2) VT
3) QT
4) ST
5) None.

18. What is P's position from the top when they are arranged in ascending order of their income?
1) Second
2) Fourth
3) Third
4) Sixth
5) None.

19. What is the profession of V?
1) Engineer
2) Charted Accountant
3) Both A& B
4) Data inadequate
5) None.

20. At least how many male members are there in the family?
1) Two
2) Three
3) Four
4) Five
5) None.

Directions (21-25): Read the follo-wing information and answer the given questions. (IBPS 15-03-2011)
Four boys, Pawan, Mahesh, Chandu and Ravi, and four girls, Eti, Seema, Hina and Anita are sitting around a circular table. Two girls and two boys are not facing the centre.

No three girls are sitting together. Chandu is second to the left of Seema, who is not sitting next to Mahesh. Eti is third to the left of Anita and one of them is not facing the centre. Pawan left of Anita and one of them is not facing the centre. Pawan is third to the right of Mahesh, who is facing the centre. Hina and Ravi are facing each other and both are not sitting next to Mahesh or Anita.

21. Who among the following is sitting between Mahesh and Ravi?
1) Pawan
2) Chandu
3) Hina
4) Anita
5) None.

22. How many boys are sitting between Seema and Eti?
1) Three
2) Two
3) One
4) can't be determine
5) None.

23. Who is sitting third to the left of Pawan?
1) Ravi
2) Mahesh
3) Hina
4) Eti
5) None.

24. Which of the following groups of four students are not facing the centre?
1) Chandu, Ravi, Seema, Pawan
2) Eti, Seema, Pawan, Ravi
3) Pawan, Seema, Eti, Chandu
4) Pawan, Chandu, Anita, Seema
5) None.

25. Who is sitting between Hina and Anita?
1) Eti
2) Pawan
3) Mahesh
4) Seema
5) None

Directions (26-30): Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle not necessarily in the same order. Four of them are facing outside four of them facing the centre.

E faces outside. Both the immediate Neighbors of E face the centre.
H sits second to the right of E. B sits third to the left of E.
D faces the centre. Both the immediate Neighbors of D faces the out side.
G sits the second to the left of A. B sits third to the right of H.
F is an immediate Neighbor of D. C is an immediate neighbor of G.

26. Who amongst the following sits to the immediate right of H?
1) A
2) D
3) C
4) G
5) None.

27. Who amongst the following sits third to the right of A?
1) D
2) E
3) F
4) A
5) None.

28. If all the people are made to sit in Alphabetical order, in clockwise direction starting from A, the position of them whom amongst the following remains the same (Excluding A)?
1) E
2) F
3) C
4) G
5) None.

29. Who amongst the following sits exactly between F and C (and also their neighbor)?
1) E
2) B
3) G
4) A
5) None.

30. How many people are sitting between A and C (counting click wise from A)?
1) Two
2) Four
3) None
4) One
5) Three

Directions (31-35): A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are Eight friends Travelling in three different cars viz. X, Y and Z with at least two in one car to three different places, viz. Delhi, Chand-igarh and Agra .

There is at least one female member of each car. D is travelling with G to Delhi but not a car Y. A is travelling with only H in car Z but not to Chandigarh. C is not travelling with either D or E. F and D is studying in the same only girl's college. H, B and G are studying in the same only boys college.

31. Which of the following repres-ents the group of females among them?
1) F, C, A
2) F, G, A
3) D, C, A
4) Data inadequate
5) None.

32. Which of the following combin-ations is correct?
1) Delhi-X-C
2) Chandigarh-X-F
3) Agra-Z-E
4) Delhi-Y-E
5) None.

33. In which car are four of them travelling?
1) X or Z
2) Y
3) X or Y
4) Z
5) None.

34. In which of the following cars is 'C' Travelling?
1) X
2) Y
3) Z
4) either X or Y
5) None.

35. Passengers in which car are travelling to Chandigarh?
1) Y
2) X
3) Either X or Y
4) Data inadequate
5) None.

DIRECTIONS (36-39): 
A, B, C, D, E and F are six boys each belonging to a different city, via Delhi, Agra, Kanpur, Lucknow, Pilibhit and Jaipur, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them got selected in a different bank, via Canara Bank, Syndicate Bank, UCO Bank, Vijaya Bank, Dena Bank and Central Bank, not necessarily in the same order. B belongs to Jaipur but did not get selected in either Dena Bank or Canara Bank.

D doesn't belong either to Delhi or to Lucknow but got selected in Syndicate Bank.

The one who got selected in Dena Bank doesn't belong to Jaipur. The one who got selected in Central Bank belongs to Lucknow. F did not get selected in Dena Bank. Either C or F got selected in UCO Bank but neither of them belongs to Pilibhit or Lucknow. A belongs to Kanpur and he got selected in either Canara Bank or UCO Bank. F doesn't belong to Delhi.

36. Who among the following belongs to Pilibhit?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) Can't be determine

37. Who among the following got selected in Dena Bank?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D

5) Can't be determine
38. The one who got selected in Vijaya Bank belong to which of the following cities?
1) Delhi
2) Jaipur
3) Pilibhit
4) Agra
5) None.

39. The one who belongs to Agra got selected in which of the follo-wing banks?
1) UCO Bank 2) Dena Bank
3) Either UCO Bank or Dena Bank
4) Vijaya Bank
5) None

Answers
1) 4 2) 2 3) 2 4) 4 5) 5 6) 5 7) 4 8) 1 9) 3 10) 2 11) 1 12) 4 13) 3 14) 5 15) 2 16) 3 17) 4 18) 5 19) 1 20) 5 21) 2 22) 4 23) 1 24) 3 25) 2 26) 4 27) 3 28) 2 29) 2 30) 2 31) 4 32) 5 33) 5 34) 2 35) 1 36) 4 37) 3 38) 2 39) 1

Wednesday, April 18, 2012

Punjab & Sind Bank Probationary Officers Recruitment


Punjab & Sind Bank invites applications for the post of Probationary Officers from Indian citizens
who have taken the Common Written Examination for Probationary Officers/ Management
Trainees conducted by IBPS in 2011 and have a valid Score card issued by IBPS & who meet the
eligibility criteria prescribed below -

Total Post-900
No minimum IBPS Score required
Educational Qualification:Graduation in any discipline with minimum 55% marks
Payment of Application Fees: 24.04.2012
Opening date for Online Registration 24.04.2012
Last Date for Online Registration (Including candidates from far-flung areas): 10.05.2012


Click here for details

Wednesday, March 28, 2012

Indian Overseas Bank 1500 Probationary Officers Recruitment



Indian Overseas Bank (IOB) was established in 1937 by Shri M Ct M Chidambaram Chettyar to encourage overseas banking and foreign exchange operations. The bank is based in Chennai (Madras) with 2555 domestic branches and six branches overseas. The bank invites application from eligible candidates for recruitment to the post of Probationary Officers on probation for a period of two years.
Name of the Post & Number of Vacancies
Probationary Officer: 1500 vacancies
Important Dates
  • Opening date for online registration/ payment of application fee: 30 March 2012
  • Closing date for online registration/ payment of application fee: 19 April 2012
  • Tentative date for Interview: May/ June 2012
Eligibility Criteria
  • Educational Qualification: A Degree in any discipline from a recognised university/ Institution with minimum 60% Marks (55% for SC/ ST/ OBC/ PWD).
  • IBPS Score Requirement: Valid IBPS score obtained in Common Written Examination (CWE) for Probationary Officers (POs) / Management Trainees (MTs) 2011-12 with a minimum score of 120 for
    General category and 105 for SC/ ST/OBC/ PWD category
    .

    NOTE:
    Candidates should also secure minimum marks, i.e. 24 for General category and 21 for Reserved Categories, in each subject including descriptive test in CWE.
  • Essential Qualification: Candidate should be Computer literate which the candidate must either possess before or acquire within six months of joining the Bank.
  • Desirable Qualification: Diploma in Banking & Finance (DBF) from Indian Institute Of Banking and Finance (IIBF) is a besides the above entry level qualification.
  • Age Limit (as on 1 July 2011): Minimum 21 years, Maximum 30 years
Pay Scale: Rs 14500 - 600 x 7/ 18700 -700 x 2/ 20100 - 800 x 7/ 25700 plus DA, HRA, CCA as per rules in force from time to time.
Selection Procedure: Candidates shall be selected on the basis of interview (50 marks). Minimum qualifying marks in the Interview will be 22.50 marks for General Category and 20 marks for SC/ ST/ OBC/ PC Candidates.
Final selection will be made on the basis of aggregate marks obtained by the candidates in the  Common Written Examination (CWE) conducted by IBPS in Sept / Nov 2011 & Interview and will be strictly according to the merit ranking.
Interview Centres: The personal interview will be tentatively held at major centres of the country and address of the same will be advised in the interview call letters.
Application Fee: Fee for General and OBC category candidates is Rs 200 and fee for SC/ ST/ PWD category candidates is Rs 50.
The fee can be paid either in the form of Payment Receipt Challan which will be available on the bank's website from 30 March 2012. The fee needs to be remitted in any of Indian Overseas Bank's branches by means of cash only and collect candidate's copy of Payment Receipt Challan for the application fee/ postage charge paid. Candidates should ensure that the following information has been correctly entered (1) Branch Name & Code Number (2) Transaction ID (3) Date of deposit and amount.
How to Apply: Candidates need to apply online on the bank's website http://www.iob.in No other means/ mode of application will be accepted. The registration number and password generated should be retained for future reference.
Candidates should submit the candidate's copy of Payment Receipt Challan along with the call letter and all other documents as advised in this notification at the time of Interview failing which the candidate will not be admitted for the Interview.
For more information, please CLICK HERE

Tuesday, February 7, 2012

IBPS REASONING PRACTICE QUESTIONS

ARITHMETICAL REASONING
DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to 12: Choose the correct alternative:
1.     P. R. R and S play a game of cards.  P says to Q, “If I give you 8 cards, you will have as many as R has and I shall have 3 less than what R has.  Also, if I take 6 cards from R, I shall have twice as many as S has.”  If Q and S together originally had 50 cards, then how many cards has P got?
a]  40                     b]  37                  c] 27                   d] 23                 e]  None of these
2.     In a chess tournament each of six players will play every other player exactly once.  How many matches will be played during the tournament?
a]  12                     b] 15                   c] 30                    d] 36                 e]  None of these
3.     Ramrao cam claim Rs. 15 for each km which he travels by taxi and Rs. 5 for each km which he drives his own car.  If in one week he claimed Rs. 500 for travelling 80 km, then how many kilometers (kms) did he travel by taxi?
a]  10 Kms              b] 20 Kms            c] 30 Kms             d] 40 Kms          e]  None of these
4.     Rohit’s brother is 3 years senior to him.  His father was 28 years of age when his sister was born while his mother was 26 years of age when he was born.  If his sister was 4 years of age when his brother was born.  What was the age of Rohit’s father and mother respectively when his brother was born?
a]  32 yrs., 23 yrs.   b]  32 yrs., 29 yrs. c] 35 yrs., 29 yrs.  d] 35 yrs., 33 yrs.e]  None of these
5.     Komal cut a cake into two halves and cuts one half into smaller pieces of equal size.  Each of small prices is 25 gms in weight.  If she has 9 pieces of the cake in all with her, how heavy was the original cake?
       a]  300 grams          b]  400 grams       c] 350 grams        d] 450 grams      e]  None of these.
6.     A bus starts from city A.  The numbers of women in the bus is half of the number of men. In the city B, 10 men leave the bus and five women enter.  Now, the number of men and women is equal.  In the beginning of the journey, how many passengers were in the bus? 
       a]  45                     b]  36                  c] 30                   d] 15                 e]  None of these.
7.     P, Q, R, S and T play a game of cards.  P says to Q, “If you give me 3 cards, you will have as many cards I originally had while if S takes 5 cards from you, he will have as many as T has.”  Also, P and T together also have the same number of cards as P and R taken together.  If they all together have 150 cards, then how many cards has R got?
       a]  28                     b]  29                  c] 31                   d] 35                 e]  None of these.
8.     Rohan is twice as old as Tejas.  Three years ago, he was three times as old as Tejas.  How old is Rohan now?
       a]  8 years              b] 10 years          c] 11 years           d] 12 years         e] None of these.
9.     The age of a father is twice that of the elder son.  Ten years hence, the age of the father will be three times the age of the younger son.  If the difference of the ages of the two sons is 15 years, then the age of the father is:
       a]  70 yrs.               b]  75 yrs.            c] 50 years           d] 60 years         e)  None of these.
10.   The number of girls in a class is three times the number of boys.  Whine one of the following numbers cannot represent the total number of children in the class?
       a]  40                     b]  42                  c] 44                   d] 48                 e]  None of these.
11.   A group of 1200 people consisting of captains and soldiers is travelling in a train.  For every 15 soldiers is travelling in a train.  For every 15 soldiers there is one captain.  The number of captains in the group is:
       a]  85                     b]  80                  c] 75                   d] 70                 e]  None of these.
12.   In a family, a couple has a son and a daughter.  The age of the father is three times that of his daughter and the age of the son is half of his mother.  The wife is 9 years younger to her husband and the brother is seven years older than his sister.  What is the age of the mother?
       a]  40 yrs.               b]  45 yrs.            c] 50 yrs.             d] 60 yrs.           e]  None of these.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 13 to 17: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow:
         

       
       
P = 60            R = 2P                   U = ½P         S= 2U
13.   How many people can read & write any one language except Spanish?
a]  210                   b]  150                c] 240                  d] 200                e]  180
14.   People who can read & write English, French & Spanish are represented by:
a]  Y                      b]  T                    c] Q                    d] X                  e]  None of these
15.   People who can read and write all the four languages can be represented by:
a]  Z                      b]  W                   c] Y                     d] X                  e)  None of these
16.   How many people known only Spanish?
a]  120                   b]  40                  c] 30                   d] 60                 e)  None of these
17.   Which of the following languages is known by the maximum number of people as per the diagram?
a]  Spanish only      b]  French only     c] English only      d] Russian only   e)  Either (A) or (C)
DIRECTIONS FOR QUESTIONS 18 TO 21: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow:
(i).   The rectangle represents govt. employees.
(ii)    The triangle represents urban people.
  1. The circle represents graduates.
  2. The square represents clerks
18.   Which of the following statements is true?
a]  All govt. employees are clerks.
b]  Some govt. employees are graduates as well as clerks.
c]  All govt. employees are graduates.
d]  All clerks are govt. employees but note graduates.
e]  None of these
19.   Choose the correct statement.
a]  Some clerks are govt. employees.
b] No clerk is from urban areas.
c]  All graduates are from urban areas.
d]  All graduates of govt. employees.  
e]  None of these
20.   Which of the following numbers represent urban govt. employees, who are graduates but not clerks?
a]  9                       b]  4                    c] 10                   d] 5                   e]  1
21.   Which number represents clerks, who are govt. employee but neither graduates nor live in urban areas?
a]  4                       b]  2                    c] 9                     d] 10                 e]  None of these. 
DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 26:  Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow:
Data on 450 candidates, who took an examination in Chemistry, Physics and Biology is given below:
Passed in all the subjects                                                      167
Failed in all the subjects                                                        69
Failed in Chemistry                                                                175
Failed in Physics                                                                  199
Failed in Biology                                                                   191
Passed in Chemistry only                                                       62
Passed in Physics only                                                          48
Passed in Biology only                                                          52
22.   How many failed in Chemistry only?
a]  15                     b]  21                  c]  30                   d] 42                 e]  None of these.
23.   How many failed in one subject only?
a]  152                   b]  144                c] 61                   d] 56                 e]  None of these.
24.   How many passed in Physics and at least one more subject?
a]  210                   b]  203                c] 170                  d] 94                 e]  None of these
25.   How many failed in exactly two subjects?
a]  56                     b]  61                  c] 152                  d] 162                e]  None of these
26.   How many passed at least in one subject?
a]  450                   b]  390                c] 304                  d] 167                e]  None of these.
DIRECTIONS for questions 27 to 31:  Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
2 4 8 5 6 b 1 3 @ 6 4 5 2 # 9 7 1 © 3 •
27.     How many pairs of numbers are there in the series highlighted in bold in the above arrangement each of which has as many numbers between them (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the numerical series?
a]  One                   b]  Two                c] Three               d] Four              e]  Five.
28.     If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the twelfth from the right end of the above arrangement?
a]  2                       b]  5                    c] 3                     d] 7                   e]  None of these
29.      Which of the following digit/symbol is second to the right of the tenth from the left end?
a]  @                     b]  4                    c] 3                     d] 5                   e]  2
30      How many symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square? (1 is also a perfect square.)
a]  One                   b]  Two                c] Three               d] Four              e]  FIve
31.      How many perfect squares are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by an even number? (1 is also a perfect square.)
a]  None                 b]  One                c] Two                 d] Three            
e]  More than three
Directions for questions 32 to 36: Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
           R D A K 5 B I 2 M J E N 9 7 U Z V 1 W 3 H 4 F Y 8 P 6 T G
32.      How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a vowel?
a]  None                 b]  One                c] Two                 d] Three            
e]  More than three
33.      Which of the following is the eighth to the left of the seventeenth from the left end?
a]  M                      b]  J                    c] 8                     d] 5                   e) None of these
34.      Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
           a) E 9 J                      b)   Z 1 U                  c)  H W 4                   d) Y 4 8                  e)   B 2 K
35.      Which of the following is the sixth to the right of the nineteenth from the right end?
           a)  5                           b) Z                                c)                          V  d) 1                    e) None of these
36.      How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by another consonant?
           a) None                       b) One                       c) Two                       d) Three                  e) More than three
Answer:
1.     d   2.     b.   3.     a.   4.     b.  5.     b.  6.     a.   7.     d.   8.     b.  9. c   10. b.     11. d.     12. b.     13. a.     14. a.     15. a.     16. d.     17. c.     18. b.        19. a.     20. d.     21. e      22. a.     23. c.     24. b.     25. D.    26. b.     27. c.          28.     b.       29.     d.       30.     b.       31. c.  32.     a.       33. a.  34. e 35. c      36  d

IBPS REASONING PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Coding – Decoding
1.       If in a certain language, TRIANGLE is coded as SQHZMFKD, then which word would be coded as DWZLOKD?
a]  EXAMPLE             b]   DISMISS            c]  FIGMENT            d]  DISJOIN
2.       if PRATAP could be given the code number 161820116, then what code number can be given to NAVIN?
a]  73957614              b]   24639125           c]  14122914            d]  19274651
3.       Seven men : A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one is wearing a cap of different colour – violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see in front of him green and blue, but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but not red. G can see caps of all the colours other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn by F is
a]  Blue                       b]   Violet                 c]  Red                      d]  Orange
4.       If ALTERED is written as ZOGVIVW, how good you write the word RELATED in the same code?
a]  VIOGZVW             b]   IVOZGWV          c]  VOIZGVW           d]  IVOZGVW
5.       If in a code language, ‘TUTORIAL’ is written as ‘DODNGLCF’ and ‘DANCE’ is written as ‘YCJMZ’, how can ‘EDUCATION’ be written in that code?
a]  ZYOTNLCMD        b]   ZYOMDCLNJ     c]  ZYOMCDLNJ       d]  ZYMODCLNJ
6.       If ‘BIRLA’ is written as ‘MYXTB’ in a code, how can ‘LIBRA’ be written in that code?
a]  TYMXB                 b]   TMXYB              c]  TBYMX               d]  TYMBX
7.       If ‘RUPA’ is written as ‘MNOP’ in a code, how can ‘PARU’ be written in that code?
a]  OPMN                    b]   POMN                c]  OPNM                  d]  PONM
8.       If ‘CLASS’ can be coded as ‘FODVV’, then ‘STUDENT’ can be coded as
a]  VWXGHQW           b]   VUXEHPU          c]  UVWEGOV          d]  UXWGHOU
9.       If in a code language, ‘MARBLE’ is written as ‘CNDFGO’ and ‘CENTURY’  is written as ‘BOPXYDL’, how can ‘MATURE’ be written in that code?
a]  CNXYDO               b]   NXYCOD            c]  CNXYOD             d]  CNXODY
10.     If in a code language ‘CAMELS’ is written as ‘XPOGTZ’ and ‘RABBITS’ is written as ‘YPUULFZ’, how can ‘S. AMERICA’ be written in that code?
a]  Z.POGYLAFX        b]   Z.OPGYLPX       c]  Z.POGLXPY         d]  Z.POGYLXP
11.     In a certain code, TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. How is CHILDREN written in that code?
a]  E J K N F I T P                                       b]  E J K N F G T O
c]   E J K N E G T P                                     d]  None of these
12.     In a certain code  LIBERATE is written as 56423172. How TRIBAL will be written in this code?
a]  736415                  b]   673451               c]  476315                d]  743615
Directions (Q. 13-16) : In a code language, the following alphabets are coded in a particular way:

X
C
Y
O
M
G

I
R
Q
V

8
4
1
6
2
0

9
3
5
7

Which group of alphabets can be decoded from the following?
13.     608175
a]  OGXYCV               b]   OGXYMR           c]  OGXYVQ             d]  OXMRYI
14.     710926
a]  VYGIXC                b]   VYGIMV            c]  VYGIOM              d]  VYGIMO
15.     019278
a]  GYIMXV                b]   GYIMOQ            c]  GYIMVX              d]  GIQMXV
16.     450639
a]  CMYXOI                b]   CQGORI             c]  CQIRGO              d]  CYMOGI
17.     In a code language, the following alphabets are coded in a particular way:

V
U
N
L
J
E
A
T
K
P
1
5
8
6
3
4
7
2
9
0
          Which group of alphabets can be decoded from the following?
                        762539
a]  ALTJUK                 b]   ALTUKJ             c]  ALTVJK               d]  ALTUJK
18.     In a code language, the following alphabets are coded in a particular way:

P
N
C
Y
A
D
J
R
J
Q
2
7
5
1
6
8
4
3
9
0
          Which group of alphabets can be decoded from the following?
                        QAJYNR
a]  064713                  b]   064173               c]  064513                d]  061473
19.     If CONSCIOUSLY is written as PEBNPJEXNKM, then SOIL is written as
a]  NEKJ                     b]   NEJK                  c]  JENK                   d]  ENJK
20.     In a certain code language, ORGANISATION’ is written as ‘JMBFSNRBSJNO’. How is ‘PRODUCTIVITY’ written in that code?
a]  SJUJSZDTENSO                                     b]  DTENSOSJUJSZ
c]   DVEPSQSJUJSZ                                     d]  DTENSOUJWJUZ
21.     In a certain code, BEAM is written as ‘$  ×  ¸  +’ and ROAD is written as ‘#, –, ¸,  *’. How is DOME written in that code ?
a]  ¸  –  +                    b]   $  –  +  ×             c]  #  –  ¸  ×              d]  ¸  –  +  ×
Directions (Q. 22-26) : The group of letters in each of these questions is to be coded as per the numeric codes and the conditions given below:

Letters
:
M
D
E
J
R
I
P
H
A
Numeric Codes:

5
8
6
7
2
4
9
3
1
Conditions:
i]       If the last letter of the letter group is a vowel, then both the last and the first letters are to be coded as the number representing the vowel as the first letter.
ii]      If the first letter of the letter group is a vowel, then both the first and the last letters are to be coded as the number representing the consonant as the first letter.
iii]     It both the first and the last letters are vowels, then both these letters are to be coded as ‘0’.
Now based on the above, find out the coded form of the letter groups given in each of the questions 22 to 26.
22.     MEJHR
a]  96732                    b]   56734                 c]  56732                  d]  None of these
23.     PHAID
a]  03140                    b]   43144                 c]  93149                  d]  None of these
24.     IMDHP
a]  45834                    b]   95839                 c]  45839                  d]  None of these
25.     AJRPI
a]  17294                    b]   47294                 c]  17291                  d]  07290
26.     DRHMJ
a]  82357                    b]   42357                 c]  02350                  d]  None of these
27.     In a certain code OVER is written as ‘PWFSQ’ and ‘BARE’ is written as ‘CBSFD’. How is OPEN written in that code?
a]  PQFOM                  b]   NODMO             c]  PQFOO                 d]  POFMM
28.     In a certain code language ‘OMNIPRESENT’ is written as ‘QJONPTSMDRD’. How is ‘CREDIBILITY’ written in that code?
a]  JEFSDCXSHKH                                     b]  JEFSDDXSHKH  
c]   DSFEJDDXSHKH                                  d]  JEFSDDZUJMJ
29.     If ‘white’ is called ‘rain’, ‘rain’ is called ‘green’, ‘green’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ is called ‘cloud’, ‘cloud’ is called ‘red’, ‘red’ is called ‘sky’, ‘sky’ is called ‘yellow’ and ‘yellow’ is called ‘black’, what is the colour of ‘blood’?
a]  Red                        b]   Blue                   c]  Cloud                   d]  Sky
30.     In a particular way of coding, the word CENRAL is coded as ABCDEFG and PLANETARIUM as HGFCBDFEIJK. With the same coding, how can we express the word LANTERN?
a]  GFCDFEG              b]   GFCDBEC          c]  GFCDEFG            d]  GFCDBEB
31.     In a certain language, ‘I like you’ is written as 123; ‘you love me and her’ is written as 34567; and ‘They are crazy’ is written as 890. How will you write, ‘You, they and I are crazy and love her’?
a]  386196047            b]   38160964           c]  381690647          d]  386190647
32.     In a certain, ‘BASIC’ is written as ‘DDULE’. How is ‘LEADER’ written in that code?
a]  NHCGGU               b]   OHDGHU           c]  NGCFGT              d]  OGDFHT
33.     In a certain code ‘VISHWANATHAN’ is written as ‘NAAWTHHSANIV’. How is ‘KARUNAKARANA’ written in that code?
a]  NKKRANKRAUK                                  b]  RURNKAAUNAK
c]   AKNUARRANKA                                  d]  KAANRAURANAAK
34.     In a certain code, ‘CONVENTIONAL’ is written as ‘NOCNEVOITLAN’. How is ‘ENTHRONEMENT’ written in that code?
a]  TNEROHEMNTNE       b]                       TNEORHMENTNE
c]   NTEROHEMNNTE       d]                       TNEROHEMNNTE
Directions (Q. 35-37) : According to a certain code: ‘min fin bin gin’ means ‘Trains are always late’  ‘gin din cin hin’ means ‘Drivers were always punished’. ‘bin cin vin rin’ means ‘Drivers stopped all trains’. ‘din kin fin vin’ means ‘All passengers were late’.
35.     Which word is represented by ‘vin’?
a]  Trains                    b]   Drivers               c]  Late                     d]  All
36.     ‘Drivers were late’ would be written as
a]  fin cin din              b]   min cin din         c]  fin din gin            d]  gin hin min
37.     ‘hin min kin’ would mean
a]  Always late trains                                  b]  All passenger trains
c]   Passengers are late                                     d]                         Passengers are punished
38.     In a certain code, ‘FORGET’ is written as ‘DPPHCU’. How would ‘DOCTOR’ be written in that code?
a]  BPAUMS                b]   BPAUPS             c]  EMDRPP              d]  BPARPP
39.     If LPPHGLDWH means IMMEDIATE, what does WRSVHFUHW stand for
a]  MARINATED         b]   STRONGEST      c]  TOPGRADED       d]  TOPSECRET
40.     In a certain code, PEAK is written as ‘3512’ and DINE is written as ‘6895’. How is KIND written in that code?
a]  2396                      b]   2986                   c]  2896                    d]  2596
41.     In a certain code, TERMINAL is written as SDQIJOBM. How is CREDIBLE written in that code?
a]  BQDCJCMF           b]   DSFEJCMF         c]  BQDCHAKD        d]  DSFEHAKD
42.     In a certain code, LABOUR is written as KBAPTS. How is CANDID written in that code?
a]  DBOEJE                 b]   DZOCJC             c]  BBMCHC            d]  BBMEHE
43.     In a certain code, ‘BELIEF’ is written as ‘AFKKDI’. How is ‘SELDOM’ written in that code?
a]  RDKCNL               b]   TFKENP             c]  RFKENM             d]  RFKFNP
44.     If ‘CERTAIN’ is coded as ‘XVIGZRM’, then how can ‘MUNDANE’ be coded in that language?
a]  NFMWZMX           b]   VMZWMFN        c]  NFMWZMV         d]  MFMXZMV
Directions (Q. 45-49) : Read the given statements and answer these questions:
45.     If ‘ROAD’ is ‘WTFI’, then ‘BEAT’ is
a]  URDG                    b]   TQCF                 c]  GJFY                    d]  UREG
46.     If ‘EFGHIJK’ are coded letters representing ‘VUTSRQP’ then the code for ‘GROUP’ is
a]  TILFK                    b]   TILEL                c]  TILGH                 d]  TFGFK
47.     If BAD is coded as 5-4-7, then the code for DARK is
a]  7-4-20-14               b]   7-4-21-3             c]  7-4-21-14             d]  7-4-20-13
48.     If CURTAIN is coded as NIATRUC, how will you code ‘FURNITURE’?
a]  TINRUFURE          b]   ERUTINRUF      c]  EUTRINRUF        d]  FERUTINRU
49.     If FOCUS : GPDVT, then LOTUS:
a]  MPUVT                  b]   MQUVT              c]  MQRSV                d]  SUTOL
50.     If BAD is coded as YZW and FIGHT is coded as URTSG. How will you encode HIGH?
a]  TRST                     b]   SRTS                  c]  STSR                    d]  TSRT
Answers:
1.       a     2.       c     3.      c     4.       d     5.       c     6.       a     7.      a     8.       a     9.       a          10.  d        11.  d       12.  a        13.  c        14.  d        15.  c        16.  b        17.  d        18.  b          19.  b        20.  b       21.  d        22.  c        23.  d        24.  d       25.  d        26.  a        27.  a          28.  b        29.  d       30.  b        31.  d        32.  a        33.  d       34.  b        35.  d        36.  a          37.  d        38.  a       39.  d        40.  c        41.  a        42.  d       43.  d        44.  c        45.  c          46.  a        47.  c        48.  b        49.  a        50.  b