COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1.          A Passive threat to computer security is-
        (1) Malicious Intent              

(2) Sabotage

(3) Accidental Errors             

(4) Espionage Agents

(5) None of these

2.          ____ allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and its services such as the Web and e-mail.

(1) TCP/IP                                  

(2) Ethernet

(3) WAP                                     

(4) Token ring

(5) None of these

3.          ‘DOS’ floppy disk does not have____.

(1) A Boot Record                  

(2) A File Allocation Table

(3) A Root Directory              

(4) Virtual Memory

(5) BIOS

4.          ‘MICR’ technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to ____.

(1) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition

(2) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition

(3) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition

(4) Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition

(5) None of these

5.          All the information collected during database development is stored in a ____.

(1) repository                          

(2) data warehouse

(3) RAD                                      

 (4) CASE

(5) None of these

6.          The ____ component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database.

(1) data extraction                 

(2) end-user query tool

(3) end-user presentation tool

(4) data store                           

(5) None of these

7.          The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone is ____.

(1) Biometrics                         

 (2) Compression

(3) Encryption                          

(4) Ergonomics

(5) None of these

8.          The word FTP stands for-

(1) File Transfer Protocol   

 (2) File Transit Protocol

(3) File Typing Protocol        

(4) File Transfer Protocol

(5) None of these

9.          This ____ tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and provides access to data.

(1) Client                   

(2) Applications/Web server

(3) Enterprise server            

(4) DBA

(5) None of these

10.      A DVD-RAM is similar to a ____, except it has storage capacities up to 5.2 GB.

(1) CD-R                                     

(2) Floppy disk

(3) CD-RW                                 

(4) Hard disk

(5) None of these

11.      All of the following are basic principles of networks, except-

(1) each computer must have a network card

(2) there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices

(3) there must be at least one connecting device

(4) each computer must have software that supports the movement of information

(5) None of these

12.      ____ are used to identify a user who returns to a Website.

(1) Cookies                               

(2) Plug-ins

(3) Scripts                                  

(4) ASPs

(5) None of these

13.      If you wanted to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol would you use?

(1) ARP                                       

(2) RARP

(3) ICMP                                    

(4) PING

(5) PONG

14.      The term, ‘hypertext’ means-

(1) Non-sequential writing 

(2) Hypermedia

(3) Blinking text     

(4) Text with heavy formatting

(5) None of these

15.      Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas?

(1) Cipher                                  

(2) Warded

(3) Device                                  

(4) Tumbler

(5) Type lock

16.      What is the name of protocol used in eliminate loops?

(1) Switching                            

(2) ISL

(3) Frame tagging                  

 (4) Spanning Tree Protocol

(5) None of these

17.      In networking terminology UTP means –

(1) Unshielded Twisted Pair

(2) Ubiquitous Teflon Port

(3) Uniformly Terminating Port

(4) Unshielded T-Connector

(5) None of these

18.      In OSI network architecture, the dialogue control and token management are responsibility of-

(1) Session layer                     

(2) Network layer

(3) Transport layer                 

(4) Data link layer

(5) None of the above

19.      A ‘C’ data structure called a structure is a group of items in which each item is identified by its own identifier, each of which is known as a member of a structure. Member is also known as-

(1) Information                       

(2) Field

(3) Record                                 

(4) Data type

(5) None of these

20.      Multithread means-

(1) Program do more than one thing at a time

(2) More than one program do one thing at a time

(3) Both are correct               

(4) Both are incorrect

(5) None of these

21.      A page fault occurs?

(1) when the page is not in the memory

(2) when the page is in  the memory

(3) when the process enters the blocked state

(4) when the process is in the ready state

(5) None of these

22.      “Each packet contains the full source and destination address.” This statement indicates which of the following?

(1) Virtual Circuit                    

(2) Datagram

(3) Data link                              

(4) FDDI

(5) None of these 

23.      Data bus is-

(1) Unidirectional                   

(2) Bidirectional

(3) Both (1) & (2)                   

 (4) Multidirectional

(5) None of these

24.      Which of the following is a type of ISDN (Integrated Service Digital Network)?

(1) Narrow bank                     

(2) Broad band

(3) Both (1) & (2)                    

(4) Virtual Circuit

(5) None of these 

25.      Which of the following is a browser to view a web page?

(1) Mosaic                                 

(2) Netscape

(3) Internet Explorer           

(4) All of the above

(5) None of these

26.      A graph is a collection of-

(1) Row and columns            

(2) Vertices and edges

(3) Equations                           

(4) Identity

(5) None of these

27.      CDMA is used in-

(1) Wireless and local loop

(2) Allocating a wireless channel

(3) Both (1) & (2)                    

(4) Local loop

(5) None of these

28.      Number of arcs incident to a node is called its-

(1) Level                                     

(2) Predecessor

(3) Degree                                                

(4) Successor

(5) None of these

29.      OSPF means-

(1) Open shortest path finite protocol

(2) Open shortest path finite protocol

(3) Open slotted path finite protocol

(4) Open slotted path first protocol

(5) None of these

30.      Binding the same name to multiple operations whose signatures differ in number or types of arguments?

(1) Overloading                       

(2) Origin class

(3) Object model                    

(4) Package

(5) None of these

31.      What is the name of the chip which has more than one processor on it?

(1) Parallel chip                       

(2) Multi-processor chip

(3) Transputer                         

(4) Parallel processor

(5) None of these

32.      In windows-

(1) Docking views may be docked

(2) Docking views may be float

(3) Docking views may be docked or float

(4) All of the above                               

(5) None of these

33.      ____ performs relocations function?

(1) Absolute loader               

(2) Direct linking loader

(3) Relocating loader            

(4) Linkage editor

(5) None of these

34.      A central computer surrounded by one or more satellite computers is called a-

(1) Bus network                      

(2) Ring network

(3) Star network                     

(4) All of the above

(5) None of these

35.      Segmentation –

(1) is a memory management scheme that supports user view of memory

(2) logical address space is collection of segments

(3) logical address consists of two tuple < segment-number, offset>.

(4) All of the above                               

(5) None of these 

36.      Which of the following is a major component of the telephone system?

(1) Local loop                           

(2) Trunks

(3) Switching office                               

(4) All of these

(5) None of these 

37.      Function is invoked by-

(1) Function                             

(2) Declaration

(3) Definition                           

(4) Prototype

(5) None of these

38.      The ACCEPT command in SQL?

(1) Creates a customized prompt when accepting user input

(2) Explicitly defines a NUMBER or DATE data type variable

(3) Hides user input for security reasons

(4) All of the above

(5) None of these

39.      How many fields are required to represent a header node of a graph?

(1) 3                                             

(2) 2

(3) 4                                             

(4) 5

(5) None of these

40.      Which of the following is not used as a data structure?

(1) Array                                    

(2) Linked list

(3) Graph                                   

(4) Directory

(5) None of these 

41.      Which of the following is an operating system call?

(1) CREATE                                                

(2) LINK

(3) SYSTEM                               

(4) All of these

(5) None of these

42.      In C++, by default, the members of a class are-

(1) Public                                   

(2) Private

(3) Both public and private 

(4) Only Public

(5) None of these

43.      In core banking systems:

(1) Store and forward of transaction is done

(2) Branch server is not required

(3) Local database is not required

(4) Transaction cannot happen from a non-home branch

(5) None of these 

44.      MV command in Unix changes-

(1) Only the directory

(2) Only the directory entry and i-node

(3) Only the i-node number

(4) All of the above                               

(5) None of these

45.      E-Commerce refers to-

(1) Electrical commerce       

(2) Electronic commerce

(3) Evolutionary commerce              

(4) Effective commerce       

(5) None of these

46.      Graphs can be implemented using-

(i) Arrays    (ii) Linked list      (iii) Stack              (iv) Queue

(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)                   

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(3) (ii) and (iii)                          

(4) (i) and (iv)

(5) None of these

47.      Thrashing-

(1) Always occur on large computers

(2) is a natural consequence of virtual memory systems

(3) Can always be avoided by swapping

(4) Can be caused by poor paging algorithm

(5) None of these

48.      The process of converting analog signals into digital signals so they can be processed by a receiving computer is referred as-

(1) modulation                        

(2) demodulation

(3) synchronizing                    

(4) digitizing

(5) None of these

49.      The relational database environment has all of the following components except-

(1) Users                                    

(2) Separate files

(3) Database                            

(4) Database administrator

(5) None of these

50.      Primary key-

(1) Denote a candidate key that is chosen by the database designer as the principal means of identifying entities with in an entity set

(2) Attributes names of all primary key are unique

(3) Primary key specification is optional and good idea to specify primary key for each relation

(4) All of the above                              

 (5) None of these

Answers:

1	1	11	4	21	1	31	3	41	4
2	3	12	1	22	2	32	2	42	2
3	5	13	1	23	2	33	3	43	1
4	1	14	2	24	3	34	3	44	1
5	1	15	1	25	4	35	4	45	2
6	2	16	4	26	2	36	4	46	4
7	3	17	3	27	3	37	1	47	4
8	4	18	1	28	3	38	4	48	4
9	2	19	2	29	1	39	1	49	2
10	3	20	1	30	1	40	4	50	4

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1.Which of the following is a private bank in India?

(1) Oriental Bank of Commerce

(2) Corporation Bank

(3) South Indian Bank

(4) Syndicate Bank

(5) Bank of Maharashtra

 

2.What is Rupee depreciation?

(1) Rupee depreciation means that rupee has become less valu¬able with respect to dolllar

(2) Rupee depreciation means dollar has become less valuable than rupee

(3)Rupee depreciation means a situation when value of rupee is same as euro

(4) Rupee depreciation happens when the combined value of dollar and euro is more than rupee

(5)None of these

 

3. Headquarter of ADB is situated in _

(1) Sanghai  

(2) Manila  

(3) Mali

(4) Geneva  

(5)None of these

 

4. CRISIL is a _

(1) Credit rating agency

(2) Employment exchange watchdog

(3) Infrastructure sector guide

(4) Market regulator

(5)None of these

 

5. By Public Sector bank we mean

(1) Government ownership in bank

(2) Capitalist ownership in bank

(3) Private ownership in bank

(4) Both (1)and (3)

(5)None of these

 

6. ______ forms a part of the Interest Rate Policy

(1) Fiscal Policy  

(2) Industrial Policy

(3) Monetary Policy  

(4) Manufacturing Policy  

(5)None of these

 

7. Credit cards are used for -

(1) Cash withdrawals  

(2) Purchase of air tickets  

(3) Purchase of consumable items from retail outlets  

(4) All of these  

(5) None of these

 

8. 13th Finance Commission has been constituted under the Chairmanship of—

(1) Y. S. P. Thorat  

(2) Vijai L. Kelkar

(3) T. S. Vijayan  

(4) Laxmi Narayan

(5) None of these

 

9. SEBI is a—

(1) Statutory body  

(2) Advisory body

(3) Constitutional body  

(4) Non-statutory body  

(5) All of these

 

10. NABARD was established on the recommendation of—

(1) Public Account Committee

(2) Shivaraman Committee

(3) Narsimham Committee

(4) Chelliah Committee

(5) None of these

ANSWERS:

1 3

2 1

3 2

4 1

5 1

6 3

7 4

8 2

9 1

10 2

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Interest rate risk is a type of
(1) Credit risk      
(2) Market risk           
(3) Operational risk     
(4) All the above     
(5) None of these



2. Which one of the following has launched guidebook on standards for exporters?
(1) RBI           
(2) SEBI           
(3) IBA         
(4) UNIDO                   
(5) UNESCO


3. Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
(1) Reserve Bank of India       
(2) State Bank of India     
 (3) ICICI Bank   
 (4) Bank of India
(5) None of these


4. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
(1) Reserve Bank of India       
(2) Imperial Bank of India         
 (3) Bank of India           
 (4) Union Bank of India        
(5) None of these


5. Which sister organization of the World Bank helps private activity in developing countries by financing projects with long-term capital in the form of equity and loans?
(1) Asian Development Bank            
(2) IMF          
(3) International Developmental Association
(4) International Finance Corporation            
(5) None of these


6. Which sister organization of the World Bank provides long term loans at zero interest to the poorest developing countries?
(1) Asian Development Bank            
(2) IMF        
(3) International Developmental Association         
(4) International Finance Corporation       
(5) None of these


7. Who is known as the ‘Father of Economics’?
(1) Adam Smith        
(2) Marshall       
(3) J.M. Keynes                 
(4) Pareto  
(5) None of these


8. Which was the first Indian Bank to introduce credit card?
(1) State Bank of India         
(2) Central Bank of India      
(3) Union Bank of India        
(4) ICICI       
(5) None of these


9. What does devaluation of a currency mean?
(1) decrease in the internal value of money
(2) decrease in the external value of money 
(3) decrease both in the external and internal values of money
(4) increase both in the external and internal values of money
(5) None of these


10. Which of the following is known as plastic money?
(1) bearer cheques      
(2) credit cards      
(3) demand drafts      
(4) gift cheques    
(5) None of these


11. The twelfth ‘Five Year Plan’ of India is for the five years ranging from-
(1) 2009-2014        
(2) 2008 -2013        
 (3) 2007-2012        
(4) 2012-2017        
(5) 2010-2015


12. DSCR indicates the ability of a company to-
(1) Meet its current liabilities       
(2) Service its share holders      
(3) Meet its long term debt obligations       
(4) Raise further capital      
(5) None of these


13. An IPO is-
(1) Initial Price Offered by private limited company to its share holders.
(2) An offer by an unlisted company for sale of its shares for the first time to the public.
(3) Used to increase the share capital of an unlisted company
(4) A book building process
(5) None of these


14. A decreasing current ratio indicates-
(1) A stable liquidity        
(2) An increasing liquidity     
 (3) A strained liquidity   
 (4) satisfactory current solvency      
(5) None of these


15. SEBI has been imposed a restriction on money flow in equity through ‘P-notes’. What is   the full form of ‘P-notes’?
(1) permanent notes          
(2) purchase notes     
 (3) participatory notes        
(4) private notes       
(5) None of these


Answers
1-2, 2-4, 3-2, 4-2, 5-4, 6-3, 7-1, 8-2, 9-2, 10-2, 11-4, 12-3, 13-2, 14-5, 15-3

UCO Bank Recruitment of Clerks

Uco Bank invites application for recruitment to the post of Clerks from Indian citizens who have taken the Common Written Examination for Clerical cadre conducted by IBPS in 2011.
Name of the Post & Number of Vacancies in UCO Bank
Clerks: 1000 vacancies


Important Dates for recruitment in UCO Bank

• Opening date for online registration/ payment of application fee: 16 May 2012
• Closing date for online registration/ payment of application fee: 2 June 2012

Eligibility Criteria for recruitment in UCO Bank
Educational Qualification (as on 1 August 2011)

• Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government. OR
• A pass with 50% marks in Higher Secondary Examination of 10+2 (10+2+3 pattern)/ 11th Std. (11+1+3 pattern) or Intermediate/ Pre-University (SC/ST/OBC/EXS & PWD candidates pass only) OR
• A pass with 60% marks in the aggregate in Matriculation/ SSC/ (old pattern)/ SSLC/ 10th Std. Examination (10+2+3 pattern) or equivalent.(SC/ ST/ OBC/ EXS & PWD candidates passed with 50% marks in aggregate)

Computer Knowledge/ Qualifications: Candidates should have a Certificate about working knowledge in Computer.
Proficiency in Official Language: Candidate should have proficiency in the Official  Language of the State for which he/ she has applied.
Essential Requirement

• IBPS Score obtained in CWE for Clerks 2011-12
• Candidates should have appeared in CWE from a centre in a State for the vacancies he/ she wishes to apply.

Age Limit (as on 1 August 2011): Minimum 18 years, Maximum 28 years
Pay Scale: Rs 7200-400/3-8400-500/3-9900-600/4-12300-700/7-17200-1300/1-18500-800/ 1-19300. DA, HRA, CCA, Graduation Pay, Medical, LFC, Terminal Benefits, other allowances etc. will be paid as per prevailing rules in the Bank depending upon place of posting.
Selection Procedure for recruitment in UCO Bank: Selection for the post of Clerk will be based on the Total Weighted Standard Score in the Common Written Examination conducted by IBPS in 2011 and marks scored in the Interview (75 marks).
Depending on the number of vacancies, the Bank reserves the right to call only those candidates who have sufficiently high IBPS score in Common Written Examination for Interview.
The minimum qualifying marks for the interview would be 40% for General Category and 35% for Reserved Category. Candidate should have proficiency in the Official language of the State for which he/ she has applied.
There may be some questions in the local language at the time of interview.
How to Apply for recruitment in UCO Bank: Candidates need to apply online on the bank's website http://recruitment.ucobank.com/job_offers.htm
Application Fee: Fee for SC/ ST/ PWD/ Ex- Servicemen category candidates is Rs 20 and fee for other category students is Rs 100.
The challan should be filled in BLOCK LETTERS. Application fee has to be paid through Fee Payment Challan at any of UCO Bank branches in cash. The fee needs to be paid in CBS Account Number and branch (as mentioned in Challan form) in the name & style of "UCO BANK CLERICAL CADRE RECRUITMENT PROJECT-2012".
Obtain the applicant's Copy of Counterfoil of the Application Fee Payment Challan duly receipted by the Bank with (a) Branch Name (b) Transaction ID/ Scroll Number (c) Date of Deposit & Amount filled by the Branch Official.
Apply online by re-visiting the Recruitment link appropriate places. Fill in all other required details therein and click on the "SUBMIT" button at the end of the Online Application form. Original counterfoil of the fee payment challan will have to be submitted with call letter at the time of interview or otherwise they will be disqualified.
The Application printout along with the fee payment receipt and required copies of documents should be kept ready for submission, if shortlisted for Interview.
For more information, please CLICK HERE

Central Bank of India Probationary Officers Recruitment

Central Bank of India
Recruitment & Promotions Division, Human Resource Central Office,
Chander Mukhi, Nariman Point, Mumbai – 400021
   
Central Bank of India, a leading Public Sector Bank, invites Online applications from Indian Citizens for appointment, from qualified candidates who hold a valid score card issued by IBPS, for recruitment to the Post of Probationary Officer. :

• Probationary Officer (PO) : 1000 posts (UR-418, OBC-223, SC-124, ST-235) (PH-30) in JMG-I Scale Rs.14500-25500, Age : 20-30 years as on 01/07/2011, Revised Qualification : Valid IBPS score obtained in Common Written Examination minimum 160 for General Category, 155 for OBC Category,  150 for SC Category and 130 for ST Category. 

Application Fee : RS. 250/- for General & OBC Category Candidates only and Rs. 50/- for others as intimation charges at any Central Bank of India Branches in India by cash only thru a payment challan.


How to Apply : Apply  Online at Central Bank website from 11/05/2012 to 25/05/2012 only.

Details as available at https://www.centralbankofindia.co.in/upload/Final%20Adv.pdf and Please visit Career section of Central Bank of India website  at  https://www.centralbankofindia.co.in for details and online submission of application from 11/05/2012 onwards.

IBPS CWE Specialist Officers Result

The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has announced the results of Common Written Exam (CWE) for recruitment of Specialist Officers in Public Sector Banks in India.

Around 3 lakh candidates who have appeared for the exam conducted on Match 11, 2012 and only 16, 268 candidates have successfully qualified. The specialist streams for which the exams were conducted include law, IT, agriculture, marketing, rajbhasha, etc.

The pass percentage of successful candidates at a little over 5 per cent of total candidates compares relatively poorly with the other two exams conducted by IBPS, while in PO the percentage were 10 and in clerk it was 17.
It must  be mentioned that the number of specialist positions available in public sector banks is also relatively lower. Successful candidates in this exam may have to compete for about 4,000 odd specialist vacancies.

Post	Registered	Appeared	Qualified
IT officer scale 1	194755	151058	4394
Agriculture field officer scale 1	20054	14217	1556
Rajbhasha Adhikari Scale 1	2306	1506	193
Law officer Scale 1	16445	11685	562
Technical Officer Scale 1	56633	41760	2332
HR/ Personnel officer Scale 1	29617	21491	1130
Marketing Officer Scale 1	46468	34956	5775
IT officer Scale 2	24618	17766	157

Click here To view your CWE Specialist Result Status

IBPS issued Important Notice about Fee Payment for PO/ MT CWE March 2012 aspirants

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) in its latest notification issued an important message about fee payment for CWE-PO/MT March 2012 aspirants. Candidates, who have paid fees by Challan and not received any confirmation email or sms after paying fees in Bank Branches, are requested to send an email to IBPS.
The candidates who have yet not received any confirmatory email are requested to furnish their Registration Number, Bank in which they have paid their fees, and fee payment date at cwe.queries12@gmail.com
As notified by IBPS, a verification of details submitted by candidates will be done followed by necessary updation for Fee-Paid Status in the system. If the details submitted by candidates are found to be wrong/ inaccurate, an email will be sent by IBPS accordingly.
IBPS will conduct the 2nd Common Written Examination (CWE- PO/ MT- II) for recruitment of Probationary Officers/ Management Trainees post in 19 public sector banks tentatively on 17 June 2012. The call letter for written examination can be downloaded from 4 June 2012.
For more details, please CLICK HERE

Malwa Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2012

General English

(Exam Held on 8-1-2012)

Directions—(Q. 1 to 11) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

1. The martyrdom (A) / about Sardar Bhagat (B) / Singh created (C) / a stir. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

2. He is well (A) / known in Hindi, (B) / Urdu and (C) / Arabic languages. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

3. Ruskin had postulated (A) / the concept of ‘social affection’ (B) / as the founding principle (C) / of a humane economy. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

4. His only motive (A) / was to finding (B) / the truth and (C) / follow it. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

5. On the surfacing (A) / she presented herself (B) / as someone in supreme (C) / control of her life. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

6. Motivating the youth of (A) / the nation is (B) / the central theme (C) / of the book. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

7. He have faced (A) / failures and (B) / disappointments without (C) / feeling defeated. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

8. Since time immemorial (A) /, India’s spiritual (B) / wisdom has being (C) / its strength. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

9. Courage is an (A) / inner fortress which (B) / no enemy can (C) / ever destruction. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

10. Boldness has (A) / genius, power and (B) / magic in it along (C) / with infinite possibilities. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

11. Rahul found college (A) / life most interesting (B) / and energetic than (C) / his schools days. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 12–22) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may either be misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

12. The beach, (A) trees and the breese (B) created a feeling (C) of extra-ordinary (D) calm. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

13. No mattar (A) how tired he feels, he never (B) misses the evening (C) walk post dinner. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

14. Either (A) kings and ordinary (B) men, studied (C) together (D) in gurukuls. All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

15. The great (A) leader called (B) upon his people (C) to rise to their highest capabilities. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

16. From the ashes (A) of the devastating (B) war, Germany has emerged (C) as a powerful (D) nation. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

17. The peon (A) has met (B) with an accident (C) while acrossing (D) the road. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

18. He was a relentless (A) crusader against (B) feudalism and colonalsm (C) in the pre independence (D) era. All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

19. After several (A) years of political turmoil, (B) the state has finally (C) gained stable. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

20. Fake (A) and fabricated (B) cases were publicised to turnish (C) his political image. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

21. Youth (A) has to come foreword (B) to reform (C) the social structure. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

22. He laiy (A) in the bed to rest, (B) and within (C) no time dozed (D) off to sleep. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 23 to 32) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Parenting is a difficult job. A creative and imaginative …(23)… is a great …(24)… to the …(25)… parent. This is precisely the reason why a repressive society produces few creative and imaginative people. As not so ordinary children, the weaker ones are …(26)…, and the hardier ones often over react in a way that turns them into …(27)… or actual criminals if they happen to live in a squalid environment. As adults, most of us do not care to …(28)… the kinetic qualities of children. Just like we want them to stop wriggling or jumping or sloshing through puddles or dangling from fence posts, in the same way we …(29)… agile minds and mercurial temperaments. We don’t like to …(30)… silly questions, to respond to anxieties that take fantasy form, or to acknowledge the …(31)… life of the child’s …(32)….

23. (A) spouse
(B) sibling
(C) one
(D) people
(E) child
Ans : (E)

24. (A) bore
(B) challenges
(C) burden
(D) problematic
(E) companion
Ans : (C)

25. (A) ordinary
(B) surrogate
(C) step
(D) willing
(E) tension
Ans : (A)

26. (A) accepted
(B) tolerated
(C) crushed
(D) patented
(E) placed
Ans : (C)

27. (A) delinquents
(B) mad
(C) angry
(D) addictive
(E) useless
Ans : (A)

28. (A) peace
(B) hooking
(C) tolerant
(D) explore
(E) accessible
Ans : (D)

29. (A) resent
(B) accept
(C) revolt
(D) acknowledge
(E) punished
Ans : (D)

30. (A) ask
(B) manage
(C) participate
(D) encouraged
(E) answer
Ans : (E)

31. (A) deeper
(B) inside
(C) hide
(D) visible
(E) fake
Ans : (B)

32. (A) worldly
(B) spirit
(C) selve
(D) personalities
(E) gist
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 33–37) Rearrange the following SIX sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the questions given below :
(1) Given a choice, all these parents would love to see these little slogging children enjoy their childhood at home or at school.
(2) Struck with acute poverty, many poor families almost force their children to work and earn.
(3) Its roots may be traced to the prevailing poverty in these continents.
(4) In these poverty stricken families, every member has to work for his/her own food.
(5) Child Labour is a phenomenon prevalent mostly in developing countries of Asia and Africa.
(6) With the cumulative earnings of all the members of the family, the members of the family are able to make their two ends meet.

33. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence ?
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

34. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence ?
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 2
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence ?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 6
(E) 1
Ans : (A)

36. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence ?
(A) 6
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 3
(E) 1
Ans : (C)

37. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 2
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 38–40) Pick out the most effective word from the given words that describes the people/phenomenon being referred to—

38. Smith has no money. He has declared himself wealthless. He will be called a—
(A) Miser
(B) Honorary
(C) Pauper
(D) Mercenary
(E) Beggar
Ans : (C)

39. Someone works for welfare of women and strongly supports the rights of women will be called—
(A) Effiminate
(B) Egotist
(C) Eccentric
(D) Feminist
(E) Self-centered
Ans : (D)

40. People who do not know how to read or write are—
(A) Illiterate
(B) Uneducated
(C) Unaware
(D) Illegible
(E) Under developed
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The chasm between India’s flourishing cities and bleak rural hinterland is narrowing. Spread across 6,50,000 villages, with an average population of 1,100, rural villagers were long imagined by city dwellers as primitive, impoverished and irrelevant, something to drive past on the way to something else. A new prosperity is sprouting in rural India, it may be a trickle, but India’s urban prosperity is flowing to the countryside. The transformation of such villages will also add fuel to the debate over democracy’s influence on economic development. India has been faulted for growing more lethargically than China, in part because of its democracy. But the new rural prosperity suggests that the high cost of democracy also has a hidden benefit. By compelling each politician to deliver results to his own narrow constituency, democracy spreads economic change more thinly. In China, a widening income gap between town and country is worrying officials.

In India, what is changing is the nature of the rich-poor divide. That divide was once synonymous with the urban-rural split. The only way to get rich was to live in town, and to reside in the country was to be bound to interminable poverty. Across India, most of the workers are farmers or landless labourers. India’s riches to extend to them, economists say, will require a revolution in farm productivity; drastic improvements in infrastructure like roads, irrigation and lectricity; and the proliferation of labour-intensive factories to absorb surplus labour from the farms. None seems an immediate likelihood. But, being rural is no longer a life sentence of poverty. The government has invested billions of dollars in development, including road building and rural electrification, and has forced banks to lend to farmers. Hearty monsoons have fattened farmers’ profits. For rich and poor farmers alike, education is within closer reach. Ten years ago, the area that had three schools; now has five. And ever more students travel to small towns or cities to pursue higher education after high school. Widening educational access has helped farmers’ children to get city jobs and send money home.

Directions—(Q. 41–43) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

41. Thinly
(A) evenly
(B) blindly
(C) heterogeneously
(D) circumstantially
(E) vaguely
Ans : (A)

42. Fattened
(A) unhealthy
(B) heightened
(C) depleted
(D) effected
(E) disowned
Ans : (B)

43. Interminable
(A) regular
(B) limited
(C) huge
(D) finite
(E) everlasting
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 44 and 45) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

44. Primitive
(A) spirit
(B) waste
(C) modern
(D) folk
(E) country
Ans : (C)

45. Transformation
(A) secret
(B) addition
(C) development
(D) stagnation
(E) elaboration
Ans : (D)

46. Which of the following is TRUE as per the passage ?
(A) Indian economy has not progressed at all in the last few years
(B) Domocracy is the cause behind the Indian rural population becoming rich, while staying in the rural areas
(C) India being a democratic nation is a huge setback to the development of the Indian economy
(D) The economists in China are in favour of introducing a democratic set up in China
(E) None is true
Ans : (B)

47. Which of the following is NOT TRUE as per the passage ?
(A) The access to education has improved in the rural areas of India
(B) The rural people and rural areas were looked down upon by city dwellers
(C) Democracy leads to a homogenous distribution of economic prosperity
(D) The Chinese economy is being remodeled as per the Indian economy
(E) All are true
Ans : (D)

48. Which of the following suggests the correct meaning of the phrase urban-rural split, as used in the passage ?
(A) The poor live in urban areas, the rich live in rural areas
(B) The poor live in rural areas, the rich live in urban areas
(C) The urban poor exploit the rural poor
(D) The urban rich exploit the rural rich
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

49. Which of the following describes difference between India and China as quoted in the passage ?
(A) India is a rich nation, China is a poor one
(B) India has villages, China has no villages
(C) Indian economy has transformed, Chinese economy is stagnant
(D) While India is a democratic nation, China is not
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

50. Which of the following is not a measure (as suggested by economists) to be taken to extend India’s riches to the landless labourers ?
(A) Revolution in farm productivity
(B) Improvements in irrigation
(C) Proliferation of labour intensive factories
(D) Drastic improvements in infrastructure like roads and electricity
(E) Easy acess to loans
Ans : (E)

Allahabad Bank Clerk (Second Shift) Exam., 2011

General English 

(Exam Held on 8-5-2011)

Directions—(Q. 1–12) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Long ago, the country of Gandhara was ruled by a just and good king Vidyadhara. His subjects were very happy, but as the king grew older, everyone grew more and more worried because the king did not have any children who could take over the kingdom after him. The king was an avid gardener. He spent a lot of time tending to his garden, planting the finest flowers, fruit trees and vegetables. One day, after he finished working in his garden, he proclaimed, ‘I will distribute some seeds to all the children in the kingdom. The one who grows the biggest, healthiest plant within three months will become the prince or the princess.’

The next day there was a long queue of anxious parents and children outside the palace. Everyone was eager to get a seed and grow the best plant. Pingala, a poor farmer’s son, was among the children. Like the king, he too was fond of gardening and grew beautiful plants in his backyard. He took the seed from the king and planted it in a pot with great care. Some weeks passed and he plied it with water and manure, but the plant did not appear. Pingala tried changing the soil and transferred the seed to another pot, but even by the end of three months, nothing appeared.

At last the day came when all the children had to go to the king to show the plant they had grown. They went walking to the palace dressed in their best, holding beautiful plants in their hands. Only Pingala stood sadly, watching them go by. Pingala’s father had watched his son working hard with the seed and felt sorry for him. ‘Why don’t you go to the king with your empty pot ?’ he suggested. ‘At least he will know you tried your best.’ So Pingala too wore his best suit and joined the others outside the palace, holding his empty pot in his hand and ignoring the laughter around him. Soon the king arrived and began his inspection. The pots held flowers of different shades, beautiful and healthy, but the king did not look happy. At the end of the queue stood Pingala, and when the king reached him, he stopped in surprise.

‘My son, why have you come with an empty pot ? Could you not grow anything ?’ Pingala looked down and said, ‘Forgive me, your highness. I tried my best, I gave it the best soil and manure I had, but the plant would
not grow.’

Now the king’s face broke into a smile. He enveloped Pingala in his arms and announced, ‘This boy truly deserves to be crowned the prince ! I had given everyone roasted seeds, which would never grow. I wanted to see which child was the most honest one, and would admit he or she would not be able to grow anything. Only this young boy told the truth. I am sure he will rule this kingdom one day with truth and honesty.’

And indeed that was what happened. When the king grew old and died, Pingala, who had learnt everything from him, came to the throne and ruled Gandhara justly for many years.

1. Why did the king distribute seeds to all children in his kingdom ?
(A) It was part of one of the rituals of the kingdom
(B) He wanted to see who could grow the tallest plant
(C) He finished all his work in the garden and had extra seeds left
(D) He wanted to inculcate the hobby of gardening among the children of his kingdom
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

2. Why was Pingala holding an empty pot in his hands ?
(1) He could not grow the seed the king gave him.
(2) His plant did not survive after the second month.
(3) He wanted to be different from the other children.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) Only (1) and (3)
Ans : (A)

3. Why did Pingala’s father encourage him to go to the king with an empty pot ?
(1) He wanted the king to know that his son tried his best to grow the plant.
(2) He wanted his son to be noticed by the king.
(3) He wanted the king to realise that he had cheated his son.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following word is most opposite to the word Admit printed in bold in the above story ?
(A) Reject
(B) Deny
(C) Dismiss
(D) Disclose
(E) Confess
Ans : (B)

5. Which of the following sentence/s is true of Pingala’s father ?
(1) He was a farmer by profession.
(2) He was very encouraging towards his son.
(3) He was a poor man.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (2)
(D) Only (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (E)

6. The king crowned Pingala heir to the kingdom because—
(A) he enjoyed gardening
(B) he was taken aback by his plant
(C) he was the only child to have admitted the truth
(D) he had the most beautiful and healthy plant
(E) he was in awe of his upbringing
Ans : (C)

7. What kind of seeds did the king give to the children ?
(1) The finest seeds he had.
(2) Roasted seeds that would never sprout.
(3) Vegetable and fruit seeds.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following statements is false according to the passage ?
(A) Pingala was fond of gardening just like the king
(B) The king did not have any child who could take over the kingdom
(C) Pingala took great care of the seed the king gave him
(D) The seeds that the king gave to the children grew into beautiful and healthy plants
(E) The children were given three months to complete their assignment
Ans : (D)

9. Why did the king call for an inspection of the plants after three months ?
(A) He wanted to see which plant had the most beautiful flower
(B) He wanted to witness the joy on the children’s faces
(C) He wanted to see which plant would be the most useful to him
(D) He wanted to check the children’s gardening skills
(E) He wanted to see which child was honest and would admit the truth
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 10–12) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

10. Avid
(A) Bright
(B) Intelligent
(C) Enthusiastic
(D) Lazy
(E) Amateur
Ans : (B)

11. Anxious
(A) Depressed
(B) Hopeless
(C) Carefree
(D) Doubtful
(E) Nervous
Ans : (E)

12. Finest
(A) Best
(B) Thinnest
(C) Ordinary
(D) Common
(E) Cheapest
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 13–17) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘no correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

13. I am very keen to to learned about the town’s history.
(A) to learns
(B) to learn
(C) at learning
(D) to have learn
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

14. For the last three weeks the shop have been closed.
(A) is being closed
(B) has been closed
(C) are closed
(D) to have closed
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

15. If you had spoken to the receptionist, she would tell you where I was—
(A) would told you
(B) will tell you
(C) would have told you
(D) would be telling you
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

16. Many forests are facing the danger to be destroyed.
(A) of being
(B) to have been
(C) to being
(D) having being
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

17. The Science teacher seem to think that all the students in her class were lazy.
(A) to seem to think
(B) seem to be thinking
(C) seem to have thought
(D) seemed to think
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 18–22) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is ‘no error’, the answer is (E) i.e. ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

18. We had to (A) / hurry to the airport (B) / as the flight departures (C) / from Mumbai at 6 : 30 pm. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

19. If you had (A) / watered the plant regularly, (B) / it would not (C) / have died. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

20. I wonder if (A) / my colleague would (B) / like it to go to (C) / the conference with me. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

21. We should focus (A) / our attention at (B) / the roads where accidents (C) / have already occurred. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

22. My friends are (A) / not allowed to (B) / go out without (C) / their parents’ consenting. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 23–27) In each question below, four words printed in bold are given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

23. The tape (A) recordings contained (B) prove (C) of his involvement in the crime. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

24. Despite (A) all the research, (B) there is still no cure (C) for the desease. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

25. Just because something (A) is expansive, (B) it is not necessarily (C) superior. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

26. Although (A) Goa is a small State, (B) it is very popular (C) with tourists. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

27. One does not appreciate (A) the importance (B) of good health (C) until one is ill. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 28–32) Rearrange the following five sentences/ group of sentences (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) “My horns are my weapons,” said the deer. “I’m sharpening them.”
(2) Frightened by the deer’s sharpened horns, he turned to the fox instead and shot him dead.
(3) The fox wondered why the deer was wasting time sharpening his weapons when there was no danger in sight.
(4) A wild deer was rubbing his horns against a tree. A fox passing by asked him what he was doing.
(5) Just then a hunter appeared at the scene.

28. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
(E) 1
Ans : (B)

29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
(E) 1
Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
(E) 1
Ans : (D)

31. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 33–40) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

One day, it so happened that Emperor Akbar …(33)… on a rock in his garden. He was in a foul mood that day and the accident made him so …(34)… that he ordered the gardener’s arrest and execution. The next day when the gardener was …(35)… what his last wish would be before he was hanged, he …(36)… an audience with the emperor. His wish was …(37)…, but when the man neared the throne he loudly cleared his throat and spat at the emperor’s feet. The emperor was taken aback and …(38)… to know why he had done such a thing. The gardener had acted on Birbal’s advice and now Birbal stepped forward in the man’s defence. ‘Your Majesty,’ he said, “there could be no person more loyal to you than this unfortunate man. Fearing that people would say you hanged him for a trifle, he has gone out of his way to give you a …(39)… reason for hanging him.’’ The emperor, …(40)… that he was about to do great injustice to an innocent man, set the man free.

33. (A) fall
(B) faltered
(C) bruised
(D) trip
(E) stumbled
Ans : (E)

34. (A) imaginative
(B) troubled
(C) disturb
(D) angry
(E) unfortunate
Ans : (D)

35. (A) understanding
(B) question
(C) told
(D) requested
(E) asked
Ans : (D)

36. (A) willing
(B) requested
(C) said
(D) demand
(E) propose
Ans : (B)

37. (A) granted
(B) presented
(C) privileged
(D) judged
(E) weighed
Ans : (A)

38. (A) claimed
(B) asked
(C) demanded
(D) wanting
(E) seemed
Ans : (C)

39. (A) genuine
(B) some
(C) prized
(D) justly
(E) more
Ans : (A)

40. (A) understands
(B) realising
(C) foresee
(D) announced
(E) thinks
Ans : (D)

United Bank of India Declared Interview Cut Off List for Probationary Officer (PO) Recruitment 2012

United Bank of India notified the interview cut off list for interview for recruitment of 450 General Banking Officers (PO) in Junior Management Grade Scale- I. The interview process will start tentatively in the month of April/ May 2012 in phases at selected centres.
The candidates were selected on the basis of eligibility criteria notified by the bank along with cut off list prepared through a valid IBPS score obtained. The category wise minimum Cut off Marks of candidates called for Interview are 172 for General Category, 167 for OBC, 157 for SC, 145 for ST, 163 for OC, 125 for HI, and 168 for VI.
United Bank of India (UBI) is one of the 14 major banks which were nationalized on July 19, 1969. Its predecessor the United Bank of India Ltd., was formed in 1950 with the amalgamation of four banks viz. Comilla Banking Corporation Ltd. (1914), Bengal Central Bank Ltd. (1918), Comilla Union Bank Ltd. (1922) and Hooghly Bank Ltd. (1932).