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Saturday, September 13, 2014

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE PRACTICE MCQs FOR ALL BANK EXAMS

1. Which of the following condition is used to transmit two packets over a medium at the same time?
1) Contention
2) Collision
3) Synchronous
3) Asynchronous
5) None of the above

2. Which of the following is not an option of the spelling dialog box?
1) Ignore
2) Ignore all
3) Edit
4) Change
5) Select

3. Four bits are used for packet sequence numbering in a sliding window protocol used in a computer network. What is the maximum window size?
1) 4
2) 8
3) 16
4) 15
5) 32

4. A message with replies on a newsgroup is often called a _____
1) post
2) list
3) thread
4) comment
5) format

5. Which of the following network is used to connect a number of computers to each other by cables in a single location?
1) WAN
2) LAN
3) GAN
4) PAN
5) MAN

6. News servers utilize _____ to distribute documents to readers.
1) NNTP
2) NEWS
3) HTTP
4) FTP
5) HTML

7. The Software which contains rows and columns is called ___
1) Database
2) Drawing
3) Word processing
4) Spreadsheet
5) All the above

8. Addresses separate the user name from the ISP using the ____ symbol.
1) &
2) @
3) %
4) *
5) $

9. The ___ layer provides a well defined service interface to the network layer, determining how the bits of the physical layer are grouped into frames
a) Data Link
b) Physical
c) Network
d) Session
e) MAC

10. The spelling tool is placed on ___ toolbar
1) Standard
2) Formatting
3) Drawing
4) Reviewing
5) Viewing

11. The maximum size of the window in a Sliding Window Protocol is _____
1) 2m + 1
2) 2m
3) 2(m-1)
4) 2m*1
5) 2m - 1

12. A name in the ____ name space is a sequence of characters without structure
1) address
2) oman
3) flat
4) Both a and b
5) location

13. Which of the following is not a valid Zoom percentage in Excel?
1) 10
2) 100
3) 300
4) 500
5) 750

14. Distance Vector Routing is a ____ routing algorithm; it consists of a data structure called a ____
1) Static, routing table
2) Dynamic, look-up table
3) Dynamic, routing table
4) Static, look-up table
5) dynamic, less table

15. What is the short cut key to replace a data with another in sheet?
1) Ctrl + R
2) Ctrl + Shift + R
3) Ctrl + H
4) Ctrl + F
5) Ctrl + V

16. The ___ protocol is based on end-toend delivery.
1) SCTP
2) TCP
3) SMTP
4) SCTP
5) HTTP

17. If you need to change the typeface of a document, which menu will you choose?
1) Edit
2) View
3) Tools
4) File
5) Format

18. What is the size of Network bits & Host bits of Class A of IP address?
1) Network bits 7, Host bits 24
2) Network bits 8, Host bits 24
3) Network bits 7, Host bits 23
4) Network bits 8, Host bits 23
5) Network bits 4, Host bits 25

19. ____ is a uniform naming scheme for locating resources on the web.
1) URI
2) HTTP
3) WEBNAME
4) RESOURCENAME
5) URL

20. The options like Relationship, SQL Server etc. are found in ___
1) External data tab
2) Database tools tab
3) Create tab
4) Home tab
5) Format tab

21. A Database Language Concerned with the Definition of the Whole Database Structure and Schema is ____
1) DCL
2) DML
3) DDL
4) DCO
5) DDI

22. A ____ Enables You To View Data From A Table Based On A Specific Criterion
1) Form
2) Query
3) Macro
4) Report
5) Bug

23. A____ normal form normalization will be needed where all attributes in relation tuple are not functionally dependent only on the key attribute.
1) First
2) Second
3) Third
4) Fourth
5) Fifth

24. An outstanding functionality of SQL is its support for automatic ____ to the target data.
1) programming
2) functioning
3) navigation
4) notification
5) none of these

25. The hardware component used to control the operation of a computer system is:
1) Ram
2) Processor
3) Keyboard
4) Hard disk
5) Monitor

26. Which output device is suited to presenting information that is likely to change very frequently?
1) Sound card
2) Monitor
3) Plotter
4) Printer
5) COM

27. Which is the most difficult environmentally to dispose of?
1) Floppy drives
2) Hard drives
3) Power supplies
4) CRTs
5) System boards

28. Which type of system hoard is the MOST likely candidate for processor upgrading if you want maximum performance and future compatibility?
1) ML
2) PCI
3) ISA
4) EISA
5) ISO

29. Which of the following is a type of preventative maintenance used on a hard drive?
1) Disk check diagnostics
2) Head alignment diagnostics
3) Initializing
4) Uninstalling programs
5) None of the above

30. How many IRQs does a chain of USB devices require?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
5) 5

31. Which of the following addressing modes, facilitates access to an operand whose location is defined relative to the beginning of the data structure in which it appears?
1) ascending
2) sorting
3) index
4) indirect
5) direct

32. Which command will be used with vi editor to replace text from cursor to right?
1) r
2) R
3) s
4) S
5) Q

33. Which of the following is not a filter?
1) cat
2) grep
3) wc
4) sort
5) None of the above

34. Which of the following commands is used to view your file 24 lines at a time?
1) pg
2) cat
3) //p
4) /p
5) ///p

35. The rise time of a pulse waveform is the time required for the voltage to rise:
1) from zero to its rms value
2) from zero to its peak value
3) from 10% of the peak value to 70.7% of the peak value
4) from 10% of the peak value to 90% of the peak value
5) from 10% of the peak value to 80% of the peak value

36. Holes are the minority carriers in which type of semiconductor?
1) Extrinsic
2) Intrinsic
3) n-type
4) p-type
5) m-type

37. While working with MS-DOS, which command is used to restore files that were backed up using the BACKUP command?
1) COPY
2) DISKCOPY
3) RESTORE
4) STORE
5) DELETE

38. Which of the following commands will take you directly to the root directory no matter what subdirectory you are currently in?
1) CD \root
2) CD\
3) CD\..
4) CD..
5) CD\\..

39. Batch files contain a group of MSDOS commands that are run in successive order. What filename extension identifies batch files?
1) COM
2) BAT
3) EXE
4) SYS
5) DOC

40. The _____ command allows you to modify the default prompt to provide other information
1) prompt
2) windows
3) cursor
4) click
5) double click

ANSWERS:
1) 2; 2) 3; 3) 4; 4) 3; 5) 5; 6) 1; 7) 4; 8) 2; 9) 1; 10) 1 ;
11) 5; 12) 3; 13) 4; 14) 3; 15) 3; 16) 3; 17) 5; 18) 1; 19) 1: 20) 2;
21) 3; 22) 2; 23) 3; 24) 3; 25) 2; 26) 2; 27) 4; 28) 2; 29) 1; 30) 1;
31) 3; 32) 2; 33) 5; 34) 1; 35) 4; 36) 3; 37) 3; 38) 2; 39) 2; 40) 1;

Wednesday, September 10, 2014

Union Bank of India Recruitment of Various Posts

Applications are invited for the following posts.
  1. Dealer (Specialized Segment): 03 Posts
    Qualifications: Post Graduation degree in Finance/ Mathematics/ Statistics/ Commerce from a university/ institution/ board recognised by Govt. of India/ approved by Govt. Regulatory Bodies. Or MBA/ PGDBM in Finance from a university/ institution/ board recognised by Govt. of India/ approved by Govt. Regulatory Bodies. And Literacy in Computer Operations and Word processing/ computing skills.
  2. Dealer (Specialized Segment): 07 Posts
    Qualifications: Post Graduation degree in Finance/ Mathematics/ Statistics/ Commerce from a university/ institution/ board recognised by Govt. of India/ approved by Govt. Regulatory Bodies. Or MBA/ PGDBM in Finance from a university/ institution/ board recognized by Govt. of India/ approved by Govt. Regulatory Bodies. And Literacy in Computer Operations and Word processing/ computing skills.
  3. Equity Research Analyst (General Segment): 01 Post
    Qualifications: MA in Economics or MBA in finance from a university/ institution/ Board recognised by Govt. of India/ approved by Govt. Regulatory Bodies. The Applicant having PhD degree in Economics from a university/ institution/ board recognised by Govt. of India/ approved by Govt. Regulatory Bodies & CAIIB will be given preference.
How to Apply: Candidates can apply online only. 

Last Date: 23-Sept-2014

For more details, please visit: http://www.unionbankofindia.co.in
/pdf/UBRPA201415EnglishWebsite.pdf

State Bank of India (SBI) Recruitment of Specialist Cadre Officers

State Bank of India invites on-line applications for appointment in following Specialist Cadre Officers posts in State Bank Group.
  1. Chief Manager (Economist): 01 Post
  2. Manager (Economist): 01 Post
  3. Deputy Manager (Economist): 01 Post
    Qualification: Postgraduate degree in Economics.
  4. Assistant General Manager (Risk Analyst): 01 Post
    Qualifications: Postgraduate degree in Statistics Or MBA/ MMS/ PGDBA/ PGPM/ PGDBM (The course should be of 2 years full time duration. Courses completed through correspondence/ part-time are not eligible. The institute should be recognised/ approved by Govt., Govt. bodies/ AICTE).
  5. Chief Manager (Risk Analyst): 01 Post
    Qualifications: Postgraduate degree in Statistics OR MBA/ MMS/ PGDBA/ PGPM/ PGDBM (The course should be of 2 years full time duration. Course completed through correspondence/ part-time are not eligible. The institute should be recognised/ approved by Govt., Govt. bodies AICTE).
  6. Chief Manager (Company Secretary): 01 Post
    Qualification: Graduate with minimum 65%marks and Associate Membership of Institute of Company Secretaries of India.
  7. Permanent Part Time Medical Officer-I: 46 Posts
    Qualification: MBBS degree from a recognised university.
How to Apply: Candidates can apply online only.

Last Date: 25-Sept-2014

For more details, please visit: https://www.sbi.co.in
/webfiles/uploads/files/1409927501019_SBI_SCO_ENGLISH_ADVERTISEMENT.pdf

Monday, September 8, 2014

Deccan Grameena Bank Recruitment of 198 Office & Office Assistant Posts

Deccan Grameena Bank invites applications for the post of Officer in Middle Management Grade (Scale III), Officer in Middle Management Grade (Scale II), Officer in Junior Management (Scale I) Cadre and Office Assistant (Multipurpose) for those who have qualified at the Online CWE for RRBs conducted by IBPS during September/ October 2013.
  1. Officer Scale-III: 04 Posts
  2. Officer Scale-II (General Banking Officer): 13 Posts
  3. Officer Scale-II (IT): 04 Posts
  4. Officer Scale-II (Law): 01 Post
  5. Officer Scale-II (Treasury Manager): 01 Post
  6. Officer Scale-II (Marketing Officer): 01 Post
  7. Officer Scale-II (Agricultural Officer): 02 Posts
  8. Officer Scale-I: 61 Posts
  9. Office Assistant (Multipurpose): 111 Posts
Eligibility: Eligibility Criteria is to be considered as per RRBs CWE-II Advertisement published in Employment News/ Rozgar Samachar Issue Dated 6th July – 12th July, 2013 released by IBPS and posted on the IBPS’s website www.ibps.in.

Application Fee (Including Postage/ Intimation Charges) (Non-Refundable): Rs. 20/- for SC/ ST/ PWD candidates and Rs.100/- for all others candidates.

How to Apply: Candidates can apply online only. 

Important Dates:
  • Opening date for online registration 03-Sept-2014
  • Closing date for online registration 19-Sept-2014

For more details, please visit: http://dgbhyd.com
/adminpanel/tender/Advertisement%20for%20Interviews.pdf

Municipal Cooperative Bank Limited, Mumbai Recruitment of Various Posts

Applications are invited for the following posts.
  1. General Manager: 01 Post
    Qualification: M.Com. of a recognised university/ CA/ ICWA/ MBA (Finance/ Banking), candidate must have passed C.A.I.I.B. and preference will be given to the candidate who have passed GDC & A/ LL.B. of recognised university.
  2. Dy. General Manager: 02 Posts
    Qualification: Postgraduate in Commerce or Economics of a recognised university or CA/ ICWA/ MBA. Candidate must have passed C.A.I.I.B. and preference will be given to the candidate passed LL.B. of recognised university.
  3. Asstt General Manager: 02 Posts
    Qualifications: i). M.Com./ CA/ ICWA/ MBA (Finance/ Banking). ii). Preference will be given to C.A.I.I.B./G.D.C. & A. iii). If the selected candidates have not passed GDC & A. then they must acquire G.D.C. & A. within a period of 2 years of service in the Bank.
  4. Asstt General Manager (EDP): 01 Post
    Qualifications: BE or Master degree in Computer Science or IT or M.Com. or M.Sc. The candidate should have at least one of the following certification: i). CISA (Certified Information System Auditor). ii). CISM (Certified Information System Manager).
  5. System Analyst: 01 Post
    Qualification: Bachelor of Engineering in Computer/ Electronics.
How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach The Municipal Cooperative Bank Limited, Post Box No. 1027, General Post Office, Mumbai-400001.

Last Date: 15-Sept-2014

For more details, please visit: http://www.municipalbankmumbai.com/career.php  

The Sharmrao Vithal Cooperative Bank Limited Recruitment of Managerial Posts

Applications are invited for the following posts.
  1. Senior Manager/ Manager (Corporate Communications and Public Relations): 01 PostQualification: Graduation degree of a recognised university and professional qualification in Mass Communication/ Media Management/ PR/ MBA in Marketing from a recognised university/ AICTE approved institute.
  2. Manager (Marketing): 01 Post
    Qualification: Graduation degree of a recognised university and professional qualification of MBA in Marketing from a recognised university/ AICTE approved institute.
  3. Manager/ Asst. Manager (Products and Promotions): 01 Post
    Qualification: Graduation degree of a recognised university and professional qualification of MBA in Marketing from a recognised university/ AICTE approved institute.
How to Apply: Candidates may send their application & detailed resume along with a latest passport size photograph and a separate attachment highlighting major achievements in functional areas in not more than 400 words, to hrms@svcbank.com. 

Last Date: 09-Sept-2014

For more details, please visit: http://www.svcbank.com
/userfiles/file/MarketingCorpCommAd.pdf

Punjab Gramin Bank Recruitment of 265 Officer & Officer Assistant Posts

Punjab Gramin Bank invites applications for the post of Officer in Middle Management (Scale III), Officer in Middle Management (Scale II), Officer in Junior Management (Scale I) Cadre and Office Assistant (Multipurpose) for those who have qualified at the Online CWE- II for RRBs conducted by IBPS during September/ October 2013.
  1. Officer Scale-III: 01 Post
  2. Officer Scale-II (General Banking Officer): 05 Posts
  3. Officer Scale-II (Agricultural Officer): 02 Posts
  4. Officer Scale II (IT Officer): 02 Posts
  5. Officer Scale-I: 60 Posts
  6. Office Assistant (Multipurpose): 195 Posts

Eligibility: Eligibility criteria is to be considered as per RRBs CWE-II Advertisement published in Employment News/ Rozgar Samachar Issue Dated 6th July–12th July, 2013released by IBPS and posted on the IBPS?s website www.ibps.in.

Application Fee (Including Postage/ Intimation Charges): Rs. 22/- for SC/ ST/ PWD candidates and Rs.100/- for all others candidates. 

How to Apply: Candidates can apply online only.

Important Dates:
  • Opening date of online registration 01-Sept-2014
  • Closing date of online registration 15-Sept-2014

For more details, please visit: http://www.pgbho.com/PGB%
20Recruitments/Sept%202014/Final%20Advertisement%20-%2001.09.14.pdf

Wednesday, September 3, 2014

SIDBI Assistant Manager Grade ‘A’ General Awareness Questions (Exam Held on: 02 & 03-09-2014)

  1. Who is the first woman director of Reliance group ? -Nita ambani
  2. Who was the first indian governor of RBI ?  -C D Desmukh
  3. Commercial paper use in as an ? - It is typically issued by large banks or corporations to cover short-term receivables and meet short-term financial obligations
  4. RRB is a type of ? -Rural bank  
  5. What is the changed limit of FDI in insurance sector ?  - 49% FROM 26%
  6. What is the full form of BBPS ? - BHARAT BILL PAYMENT SYSTEM
  7. When we write any program in a language we are  supposed to be doing ? - CODING
  8. What is the full form of TCP/IP ? - Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol
  9. What is the current computer generation ? - 5th Generation
  10. What is the full form of  ESOP? - Employee Stock Ownership Plan
  11. Who is the author of  the book 'The Accidental Prime minister' ? - Sanjaya Baru
  12. The drawee of a cheque is ? - DRAWEE is the bank which is assigned to pay the PAYEE
  13. Who is the watchdog of indian market? - SEBI
  14. What is the full form of CRAR? - Capital to risk assets ratio
  15. What is the Award associated with indian cinema field ? - Dada Saheb Phalke award(among options)
  16. What is the full form of  DICGC? - Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
  17. 1 may is foundation day of which state?- Maharashtra and Gujrat
  18. Dilwara temple is located in which state? -Rajasthan
  19. What is the full form of REIT ?  – Real Estate Investment Trust
  20. Which firm got recently banking license ? – IDFC & Bandhan
  21. Who were the founder of World wide Web ? - Robert Cailliau & Tim Berners-Lee
  22. Apex board for controlling agriculture and rural development – NABARD
  23. Who was the first governor of RBI ?– Sir Osborne Smith
  24. Where is the Permanent secretariat of SAARC? – Kathmandu
  25. Who is Lalgudi Jayaram ?  – Indian Carnatic violinist, vocalist and composer
  26. Which company raised 1bn $ recently in fresh funding ? – Flipkart
  27. commercial paper can be issued by company having minimum net worth? not less than 4 cr
  28. Origin of the concept of Microfinance was in which country ?  Bangladesh
  29. Which can be said as “Buy now, pay now” card ?  – Debit Card
  30. The 21st CommonWealth Games will be held in – Queensland, Australia
  31. The CAR is related to ? – Risk weighted Assets
  32. Asset reconstruction companies related with — Non Performing Assets (NPAs)
  33. What is the full form of SFIO ? - Serious Fraud Investigation Office
  34. What is the full form of  MSF ? - marginal standing facility
  35. What is the full form of  MIMD ? —Multiple instruction Multiple Data
  36. What is the full form of PIN ? - Personal Identification Number 
  37. A question each on Open market operation , mortgage and FCNR bonds

Saturday, August 30, 2014

MARKETING AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR SBI PO EXAM 2014

1. 'Product Line & Product Mix', the important areas, are covered by which of the following policy?
a) Product
b) Distribution
c) Promotion
d) Price
e) Profit

2. Introduction, Growth ____ and ___ are the four stages of Product Life Cycle.
a) Maturity, Saturation
b) Maturity, Decline
c) Decline, Maturity
d) Saturation, Maturity
e) None of the above

3. Sales Promotion Measures are suitable to achieve___term goals
a) Short
b) Medium
c) Medium- Long
d) Long
e) Shortest

4. Product, Price, Promotional activities and the Distribution system are the four inputs, together known as ____ mix.
a) Product
b) Marketing
c) Promotional
d) Place
e) Price

5. ''Find wants and Fill them '' is a theme described in which concept?
a) Selling
b) Marketing
c) Product
d) Production
e) Consumer surplus

6. Modern Marketing Concept lays great importance on the freedom of the ___
a) Producer
b) Seller
c) Consumer
d) Advertiser
e) Dealer

7. Which of the following is related to Brand Name ____
a) Term
b) Words
c) Letters
d) Both 'b' & 'c'
e) None of the above

8. A set of assets & Liabilities linked to a Brand is termed as ___
a) Brand Mark
b) Brand Equity
c) Brand Line
d) Brand Loyalty
e) Brand Ambassador

9. A Brand or that part of the Brand which is legally protected is called as ___
a) Trade Mark
b) Brand Equity
c) Brand Name
d) Brand Valuation
e) All of the above

10. Trademark is a name or mark which should be ___
a) Registered
b) Legalized
c) Franchised
d) Both 'a' & 'b'
e) Registered with Registrar of Companies

11. Product research deals with the Analysis of ____
a) Demand & Supply
b) Product Line
c) Advertisement Effectiveness
d) Physical Distribution
e) None of the above

12. During which stage of the 'Product Life Cycle' Profits are normally Negative or Very Nominal ____
a) Introduction
b) Growth
c) Decline
d) Maturity
e) In between Growth and decline

13. Which of the following is a function of Packaging ___
a) Protection
b) Promotion
c) Convenience
d) Attraction
e) All of the above

14. Length, Width, Depth & Consistency are the four Dimensions of ____
a) Product Item
b) Product Line
c) Product Mix
d) Marketing Mix
e) Demand Mix

15. During the 'Maturity' stage of the 'Product Life Cycle' Sales are ____
a) Low
b) Declining
c) At Peak, Stabilizing
d) Rapidly Rising
e) Reasonably good

16. Which of the following type of Marketing is Suitable to introduce a New Product ____
a) Concentrated
b) Industrial
c) Target
d) Synchro
e) Random

17. Penetration Pricing describes ____
a) Product penetrate into markets to hold a position
b) Adopting low prices in the initial stages
c) Both 'a' &' b'
d) None of the above
e) All of the above

18. Skimming Pricing is otherwise called as ___
a) 'Skim the Cream' Pricing
b) Odd Pricing
c) Seated Bid Pricing
d) Negotiated Pricing
e) Discriminating pricing

19. 'Cost- Plus Pricing' is also known as ____
a) Discriminatory Pricing
b) Pricing Lining
c) Mark-Up Pricing
d) Expected pricing
e) Fixing price as per customer demand

20. Price is a determinant of ___
a) Profit
b) Loss
c) Cost
d) Demand
e) All of the above

21. Price is the ____ of a Product expressed in terms of ____
a) Quantity, Money
b) Quantity, Cost
c) Value, Money
d) Value, Cost
e) None of the above

22. Price is one of the four P's of ____
a) Product Mix
b) Promotion Mix
c) Marketing Mix
d) Market Characteristics
e) Human Resource Mix

23. Which of the following is not related to Skimming Pricing ____
a) To collect huge profit within a short period of time
b) Is convenient in the case of fashion goods
c) Is a short term policy
d) Initial low price
e) None of the above

24. The general objective of Marketing Cost Analysis is to ___
a) Obtain cost data for selling expense budget
b) Determine relative profitability of various sales & marketing operations
c) Keep expenses in line with sales expenses
d) Analyze costs by territory
e) Sell product at a lowest possible cost

25. In Marketing Cost Analysis, Selling Expenses are allocated according to ____
a) Size of Order
b) Customers
c) Territories
d) Any of these
e) None of the above

26. Which of the following is not related to penetration price?
a) Initial low price
b) Long term policy
c) To capture the market in a gradual manner
d) Heavy advertisement and promotional expenditure necessary
e) Supplying free samples at new place of market

27. Target pricing is also known as ____
a) Cost- Oriented Pricing
b) Break- Even Pricing
c) Cost-Plus pricing
d) Demand- Oriented pricing
e) All of the above

28. Which of the following is considered as Social Aspects of Packaging ____
a) Attractiveness
b) Bio- Degradability
c) Name of the Manufacturer
d) Convenience
e) Informative

29. 'Market Demand ' is generally ____
a) More than market potential
b) Less than market potential
c) Equal to market potential
d) Fluctuating over and below market potential
e) Higher than expectations

30. Which of the following consists of analyzing marketing opportunities, developing marketing strategies & managing the marketing efforts?
a) Marketing Functions
b) Marketing Process
c) Marketing Strategies
d) Marketing Opportunities
e) None of the above

31. The main feature of Marketing is that it is ___ oriented.
a) Demand
b) Production
c) Consumer
d) Competition
e) All of the above

32. Why is it necessary for the entrepreneur to be in continuous touch with the changes in consumer behavior?
a) To enable him to launch new products
b) So that changes in existing products can be made to suit customer requirements
c) Product can be stored
d) All of the above
e) a and b

33. What is the main aim of price skimming and penetration theory?
a) Maximise profit
b) Short range pricing objective
c) Minimise cost
d) Maximise cost
e) None of the above

34. What is the defect of agricultural marketing in India?
a) Lack of control
b) Lack of organization
c) Lack of Unity
d) Lack of information related to market
e) b, c and d

35. Another name of semi finished product is ___
a) Work
b) Work in progress
c) Progress of work
d) Slow progress
e) None of the above

36. Good marketing requires one of the following:
a) Proper planning
b) Good team work
c) Good communication skills
d) Knowledge of products
e) All of the above

37. One of the following is not a target group for saving account ____
a) Salaried Persons
b) Doctors
c) Public servants
d) Insurance agents
e) Loss Marking Companies

38. The ultimate aim of Marketing is to provide ___
a) More business to the company
b) More customers
c) More staff
d) More production
e) More products

39. Target group of education loan is ____
a) All school students
b) All college students
c) All colleges
d) All hospitals
e) All schools

40. A ___ is the way consumers perceive an actual or potential product?
a) product idea
b) product image
c) product concept
d) product feature
e) None of these

ANSWERS:
1) a; 2) b; 3) d; 4) b; 5) b; 6) c; 7) d; 8) b; 9) a; 10) d;
11) b; 12) a; 13) e; 14) c; 15) c; 16) a; 17) c; 18) a; 19) c; 20) e;
21) c; 22) c; 23) d; 24) b; 25) d; 26) d; 27) a; 28) b; 29) d; 30) b;
31) c; 32) e; 33) b; 34) e; 35) b; 36) e; 37) e; 38) a; 39) b; 40) b.

RECRUITMENT OF PROBATIONARY OFFICERS IN ASSOCIATE BANKS OF STATE BANK OF INDIA 2014

Applications are invited from eligible Indian Citizens for appointment as Probationary Officers (POs) in Associate Banks of State Bank of India. Candidates selected are liable to be posted anywhere in India,apply before 18/09/2014.
Advertisement No. : CRPD/PO/AB/2014-15/04
Job Location : All India
Job Details :
Post Name : Probationary Officers
  • No. of Vacancy : 2986 Posts.
  • Pay Scale : Rs.14500-25700/-
Bank                  Vacancies
SCSTOBCGENTotalVHOH
SBBJ4571811533501508
SBH1121572533789003818
SBM70691262355001416
SBP07561324 1001402
SBT18118027050511361515
TOTAL415533743129529869659

Eligibility Criteria : 
  • Educational Qualification : Graduation in any discipline from a recognised University or any equivalent qualification recognised as such by the Central Government. Candidate having integrated dual degree (IDD) certificate should ensure that the date of passing the IDD is on or before the eligiblity date.
Nationality : Indian
Age Limit : Not below 21 years and not above 30 years as on 01.09.2014 i.e candidates must have been born not earlier than 02.09.1984 and not later than 01.09.1993 .
Selection Process :
Phase I : Examination consisting Objective Tests for 200 marks and Descriptive Test for 50 marks. The Objective Test will be online. Immediately after the online Objective Test, Descriptive Test will be administered. Questions relating to Descriptive Test will be available on computer (Online) and candidates will have to write the answers on the answer sheet (Offline) provided to them on Paper/Pen mode.
(i) Objective Test : The Objective Test with 2hours duration consists of 4 Sections with 50 marks each (Total 200 marks) as follows:
Syllabus :  
  1. Test of English Language (Grammer, Vocabulary, Comprehension etc.)
  2. Test of General Awareness, Marketing & Computers
  3. Test of Data Analysis & Interpretation
  4. Test of Reasoning (High Level)
Note : The candidates are required to qualify in each of the Tests by securing passing marks, to be decided by the Bank.
(ii) Descriptive Test : The Descriptive Test with 1 hour duration (50marks) will be of “Test of English Language (comprehension, short précis, letter writing & essay)”. The candidates are required to qualify in the Descriptive Test by securing passing marks, to be decided by the Bank.
b) Phase  II : Group Discussion (20 marks) & Interview (30 marks)  ;  The aggregate marks of candidates qualifying in both the Objective Tests and Descriptive Test will be arranged in descending order in each category. Adequate number of candidates in each category, as decided by the Bank will be called for Group Discussion and Interview.
Note : For Final Selection the candidates will have to qualify both in Phase-I and Phase-II separately.
Application Fee :
  • SC / ST / PWD : Rs.100/-(Intimation Charges only).
  • All other : Rs.500/- (App. fee and intimation charges).
Candidates have the option of making the payment of requisite fees/ intimation charges either through the ONLINE mode or the OFFLINE mode.
(i) Offline mode : The system will generate a cash voucher/ challan form pre-printed with the candidate’s details which will be required to be presented at any State Bank of India branch counter with the requisite fee. On payment of the requisite fee through computer generated challan form, registration of the online application will be complete.
(ii) Online mode : The payment can be made by using debit card/ credit card/Internet Banking.
How to Apply : Candidates will be required to register themselves online first through Bank’s website www.statebankofindia.com or www.sbi.co.in. between 01-09-2014 to 18-09-2014.
Important Dates:
  • Starting Date of online Registration of Application : 01-09-2014.
  • Last Date to Apply : 18/09/2014.
  • Payment of Application Fees On-Line : 01-09-2014 to 18-09-2014.
  • Payment of Application Fees Off-Line : 03-09-2014 to 20-09-2014.