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Wednesday, January 25, 2012

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. The Govt of India has decided to declare which of the following rivers a National River?
a) Brahmaputra
b)
Yamuna
c)
Ganga 
d)
Kaveri    
e)
None of these

2. Who amongst the folIowing economists gave the concept of "economies of scale", which says "many goods and services can be produced more cheaply in long series"?
a) Edward C Prescott
b)
Amartya Sen
c)
Gary S Becker
d)
Edmund S Phelps
e)
Paul Krugman

3. Very often we read in newspapers/magazines about "Sovereign Wealth Funds". Which of the following is/ are the correct description of the same?
(A) These are the funds or the reserves of a government or central bank of a country which are invested further to earn profitable returns.
(B) These are the funds which were accumulated by some people over the years but were not put in active circulation as they retain them as Black Money for several years.
(C) The funds which are created to be used as relief funds or bailout packages are known as sovereign funds.
a) Both B & Conly
b)
Only B
c)
Only C
d)
Only A
e)
None of these

4. Very often we read about Special economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. What is the purpose of promoting SEZs in India?
(A) They are established to promote exports.
(B) They are established to attract investments from foreign countries.
(C) They are established to help the poorest of the poor in India as the activities of these zones are reserved only forthe poors and those living below poverty line.
a) Only A    
b)
Only B
c)
Only C
d)
Both A & B only
e)
None of these

5. The ratio of the Cash Reserves that the banks are required to keep with the RBI is known as
a) Liquidity Ratio    
b)
SLR
c)
CRR    
d)
Net Demand & Time Liability
e)
None of these

6. The-Govt ofIndia in order to provide some relief to the exporters announced a relief-package of Rs
a) 1000 cr
b)
2500 cr
c)
4000 cr    
d)
5000 cr
e)
7000 cr

7. The availability of cash and other cash-like marketable instruments that are useful in purchases and investments are commonly known as
a) Cash crunch
b)
Liquidity
c)
Credit
d)
Marketability
e)
None of these

8. The White Tiger is a book written by
a) Amitav Ghosh    
b)
Arundhati Roy
c)
VS Naipaul    
d)
Kiran Desai
e)
Aravind Adiga

9. Besides USA and France, India has a Civil Nuclear Deal with
a) Britain    
b)
Russia
c)
Germany 
d)
Canada
e)
Australia

10. Jnanpith Award is given for excellence in the field of
a) Music    
b)
Literature    
c)
Sports
d)
Films    
e)
Social Services

11. As per newspaper reports, India's trade gap has been showing a negative growth for the last few months. "Trade Gap" means what?
a) Gap between total GDP and total consumption
b)
Gap between total imports and total exports
c)
Gap between available liquidity and expected demand in next five months
d)
Gap between budgeted revenue collection and actual collection of the same
e)
None of these

12. 'Equity schemes managed strong NAV gains, which, boost their assets' was a news in some financial newspapers. What is the full form of the term NAVas used in above head lines?
a) Nil Accounting Variation
b)
Net Accounting Venture
c)
Net Asset Value
d)
New Asset Venture
e)
None of these

13. As per reports published in various newspapers, mutual fund companies showed 94 per cent growth in their total profits during 2009-10. This means the profits earned by these companies were 94 per cent
a) in their total investments they made collectively during the year
b)
more than their profits during previous year
c)
of the total capital of the company
d)
less than the total expenditure of the companies
e)
None of these

14. As per the reports published in some major news papers "ADAG companies" made good profits during the year. ADAG companies are popularly known as
a) Companies owned by Tata Group
b)
Aditya Birla Companies
c)
Reliance Companies
d)
Companies owned by Aptech
e)
None of these

15. "Mutual Funds reported exceptional performance in 2009-10" was the news in major financial news papers recently.  What is a mutual fund?
A. A type of collective investment scheme that pools money from many investors and invests it in stocks, bonds or other money market instruments.
B. It is a subsidiary of a bank or financial company created specially to raise money to be invested in a particular industry, ie housing or insurance etc. The money raised thus cannot be invested anywhere else.
C. When several banks and financial companies come together and create a common pool of money to fund mega infrastructural project like bridges, roads, power plants etc, the common pool is known as Mutual Fund.
a) Only A
b)
Only B
c)
Only C
d)
All A, B & C
e)
None of these

16. We very frequently read about Europe's sovereign debt crisis these days. Which of the following statements/is/are true about the same?
A. In early 2010 the Euro crisis developed in some countries like Greece, Spain and Portugal.
B. This created a credit default swap between the countries of the European Union ..
C. SAARC countries have offered some assistance to some of the severely affected countries like Portugal, Spain and Greece.
a) Only A
b)
Only B
c)
OnlyA & B
d)
All A, B & C
e)
None of these

17. As per the announcement made by the RBI, some Stock Exchanges in India are allowed to introduce Plain Vanilla Currency Options. The term Plain Vanilla Currency Options is associated with which of the following activities/operations?
a) Dollar-Rupee Exchange Rate
b)
Floating of Commercial Papers
c)
Launch of new mutual funds
d)
Deciding the opening price of a share on a particular" business day
e)
None of these

18. The process of "Artificial Application of Water to the soil usually for assisting in growing crops" is technically known as
a) water harvesting
b)
irrigation
c)
water recharging
d)
percolation
e)
none of these

19. Waste Water generates which of the following gases. which is more powerful and dangerous than C02?
a) Nitrogen    
b)
Sulphur dioxide
c)
Hydrogen
d)
Methane
e)
None ofthese

20. Which of the following days was observed as World Water Day 2010?
a) 20th June
b)
22nd July
c)
22nd March
d)
20th May
e)
None of these

21. "Indira Gandhi Canal", which is around 450 km long, provides irrigation facility mainly to which of the following states?
a) Punjab
b)
Haryana
c)
Madhya Pradesh
d)
Gujarat
e)
Rajasthan

22. Who amongst the following is the director of the popular Hindi film "OyeLucky ! Lucky Oye"?
a) Mani Ratnam    
b)
David Dhavan
c)
Dibakar Banerjee    
d)
R Balakrishnan
e)
None of these

23. Which of the following is NOT a missile developed by the Defence Research and Development. Organisation (DRDO) ?
a) Shaurya
b)
Pinaka
c)
Brahmos
d)
Agni    
e)
Nag

24. Which ofthe following metals is used for generation of Nuclear Energy by most of the Nuclear Power Plants?
a) Zinc    
b)
Platinum    
c)
Uranium
d)
Nickel    
e)
None of these

25. Indus Water Treaty is a pact on' sharing of river water between India and
a) Bangladesh    
b)
Pakistan
c)
Nepal
d)
Afghanistan
e)
Myanmar

26. Which of the following is/are considered a Renewable Source of Energy?
A. Wind Energy
B. Solar Energy
C. Nuclear Energy
a) OnlyA  
b)
OnlyB
c)
OnlyC
d)
Only A & B
e)
All A, B' & C

27. Mrs. Pratibha Patil is the _______the President of India 
a) 10th President of India
b)
11th President of India
c)
12th President of India
d)
1st President of India
e)
15th President of India

28. How many intertwined rings are shown in the Olympic Flag used these days in the games?
a) Five
b)
Six   
c)
Seven
d)
Three
e)
None of these

29. India's 'Look East' trade policy is designed to help particularly members of which of the following group of nations?
a) SAARC    
b)
ASEAN
c)
WTO
d)
NAT
e)
EU

30. Which of the following countries has signed a 22-Point Agreement with Madhesi People's Right Forum (MPRF)?
a) China    
b)
Nepal    
c)
India
d)
Bangladesh    
e)
Myanmar

31. 'Brahmos' is designed to be used by which of the following?
a) Indian Navy
b)
Indian Army
c)
Indian Air Force
d)
Border Security Force
e)
All of these

32. Which of the following agencies/organisations is setting up India's first Natural Resource Data Centre in Kolkata?
a) RBI 
b)
SEBI
c)
NABARD
d)
S~C    
e)
BARC

33. The Finance Minister ofIndia recently made a mention that Infrastructure Development in India should be done on PPP model only. What is the full form of'PPP'?
a) Purchasing Power Parity
b)
Public Private Partnership
c)
Purchase Produce Provide
d)
People's Programme & Priority
e)
None of these

34. The Global Non-Violence Day was observed on which of the following days?
a) 15th August
b)
14th November
c)
19th September
d)
2nd October
e)
30th January

35. The period for 11 th Five Year Plan is
a) 2005-10
b)
2006-11    
c)
2007-12
d)
2008-13    
e)
None of these

36. Who amongst the following has played the main/lead role in the film Chak De India?
a) Abhishek Bachchan    
b)
Salman Khan
c)
Aamir Khan    
d)
Shah Rukh Khan
e)
None of these

37. 'Ranji Trophy' is associated with the game of
a) Hockey    
b)
Football
c)
Badminton
d)
Cricket
e)
Tennis

38. Which ofthe following awards is given for excellence in literary work?
a) Bharat Ratna
b)
Shanti Swamp Bhatnagar Award
c)
DronacharyaAward
d)
Arjuna Award
e)
Pulitzer Prize

39. Roger Federer, who won the US Open 2007 Tennis Championship, is a citizen of
a) Belgium
b)
France
c)
Russia
d)
USA    
e)
Switzerland

40. Which of the following awards is NOT a 'Gallantry I Award'?
a) Mahavir Chakra    
b)
Vir Chakra
c)
Vishista Sewa Medal
d)
Ashok Chakra
e)
Saraswati Saminan

41. As per the to Commerce Ministry data released on 2 January 2012, India’s exports recorded their slowest pace of growth in two years in November 2011. What was the per centage of growth recorded?
a) 4.2%
b)
3.8%
c)
2.2%
d)
0.94%

42. The capital market regulator SEBI on 3 January 2012 allowed auctioning of securities through stock exchanges and introduced a new method for institutional placement of stocks. Which of the following facts related to the above statement is/are not true?
1. Under the institutional placement programme (IPP), shares can be sold only to qualified institutional buyers.
2. There shall be at least 25 allottees in every IPP issuance. No single investor shall receive allotment for more than 25% of the offer size
3. The IPP method can be used to increase public holding by 10% and could be offered to only qualified institutional buyers with 25% being reserved for mutual funds and insurance companies
4. Under the IPP, companies will have to announce the ratio of buy-back, as is done in the case of rights issues and fix a record date for determination of entitlements as per shareholding on record date
a) Only 1
b)
Only 3
c)
Only 2
d)
Only 4

43. What is the Finace Ministry’s decision on the rates applicable on small savings instruments schemes that would be announced on April 1 each year?
a) rate would remain valid till the maturity of the scheme
b)
rate would change in the first qurter of that respective year
c)
rates would change depending on different maturity period
d)
rates would remainvalid for six months post the maturity

44. Scientists discovered unknown species off the coast of Antarctica. Consider the following statements: i) The temperature in this region rises to 380 degree Celsius. Ii) There is plenty of light in this region.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
a) Only i
b)
Only ii
c)
Both i and ii
d)
Neither i nor ii

45. Scientists produced artificial human semen to help infertile men.  Consider the following statements:
i) The scientists grew the sperm by enveloping the germ cells in a special compound called agar jelly.
ii) The artificial human semen could help infertile men father their own children.
Choose the right option:
a) Both i and ii are correct.
b)
Only i is correct.
c)
Only ii is correct.
d)
Neither i nor ii is correct.

46. Health Authorities in Australia recently detected Deadly Disease, Murray Valley Encephalitis.  The disease is caused by the__.
a) Flies
b)
Mosquitoes
c)
Birds
d)
Dogs

47. Which PSU announced on 2 January 2012 that its board approved in a meeting held on 30 December 2011 the switching over to internationally-accepted Gross Caloric Value-based pricing mechanism?
a) BHEL
b)
ISPAT
c)
CIL
d)
IOC

48. Mukesh Ambani’s Reliance Industries Ltd (RIL) entered the media and entertainment sector by making a major investment in one of India’s largest broadcast companies. Name the broadcast company.
a) Network18 Group
b)
Adlabs Films
c)
Balaji Telefilms
d)
Bag Films

49.  India approved the acquisition of French advanced missile systems to arm the Mirage-2000 fighter jets. Consider the following statements:
i)  The cabinet committee on Security cleared the contract for the fire and forget MICA with French company MBDA.
ii) MICA are interception and aerial combat missiles.
Choose the right option:
a) Both i and ii are correct.
b)
Only i is correct.
c)
Only ii is correct.
d)
Neither i nor ii is correct.

50.  The Union government approved Katra-Quazigund Railway line project. The project is located in__.
a) Jammu and Kashmir
b)
Bihar
c)
Punjab
d)
Haryana

51.
(1) Theatre director, screenplay writer and actor Satyadev Dubey, credited with introducing existential and absurd theatre, passed away on 25 December 2011. Which facts about the concerned person is/are not true?
(2) he got attracted to the post-1947 theatre and joined Theatre Unit, the theatre group-cum-school founded by Ebrahim Alkazi
(3) Dubey came into prominence with Dharamvir Bharati’s radio-play Andha Yug that brought to the fore the pervasive criminal and homicidal tendencies during the times of war.
(4) He penned screenplays/dialogue of some acclaimed films in the 1970s, including Shyam Benegal's Nishant, Ankur, Kalyug and Bhumika
(5) He won the Filmfare Award for Best Dialogue in 1980 for the film Ankur
a) Only 1
b)
Only 4
c)
2 & 3
d)
Only 2

52. Lok Sabha on 27 December 2011 passed the Lokpal and Lokayukta bill, 2011. Consider the following statements:
i) The setting up of Lokayuktas by the states would not be mandatory.
ii) The constitutional amendment bill fell through.
Choose the right option:
a) Both i and ii are correct.
b)
Only i is correct.
c)
Only ii is correct.
d)
Neither i nor ii is correct.

53.
(1) Reserve Bank of India deregulated non-resident external (NRE) deposits on 16 December 2011 allowing banks  to offer higher interest rates to dollar-denominated accounts. Which of the following facts related to the above statement is/are not true?
(2) Reserve Bank freed the rates on non-resident external accounts, offering interest as high as 9.6% per annum
(3) Following RBI’s deregulation five Indian banks, including HDFC Bank and Yes Bank on 23 December 2011 raised their interest rates on such deposits in order to lure foreign money
(4) Private lender Yes Bank increased the interest rates on fixed deposits held by non-resident Indians (NRIs) to 8.4 per cent from 3.82 per cent
(5) The new rates are effective from 24 December for fresh deposits as well as those being renewed on maturity.
a) 1 & 2
b)
Only4
c)
Only 3
d)
1 & 4

54. According to the RBI data, India's foreign exchange reserves fell by what amount to $302.1 billion during the week ended 16 December  2011 on account of a fall in foreign currency assets?
a) $4.67 billion
b)
$3.33 billion
c)
$5 billion
d)
$5.75 billion

55. Telecom Commission, the decision-making body of the Department of Telecommunications recommended a uniform licence fee of what per cent of adjusted gross revenues (AGR) as against the prevalent rate of 6-8 per cent?
a) 10%
b)
8%
c)
5.2%
d)
9.3%

56.  NASA's Kepler mission discovered the first Earth-size planets orbiting a sun-like star outside our solar system. These planets are called ___ and____.
a) Kepler-20e; Kepler-20f
b)
Kepler-20a; Kepler-20b
c)
Kepler-20c; Kepler-20d
d)
Kepler-20m; Kepler-20n

57. Scientists at the Salk Institute for Biological Studies report discovered a missing link between the body’s biological clock and sugar metabolism system. Consider the following statements
i)
Sugar Metabolism is a process by which the body uses sugar for energy.
ii) If the human body produces too little insulin, the amount of sugar in the blood increases abnormally, a condition known as hyperglycemia.  Choose the right option:
a) Both i and ii are correct.
b)
Neither i nor ii is correct.
c)
Only i is correct.
d)
Only ii is correct.

58. Name the gene found by the neuroscientists, which could help in creating and altering memory.
a) Mpas 4
b)
Npas 4
c)
Npas 3
d)
Mpas 2

59. Name the Rashtriya Lok Dal (RLD) leader who was inducted into the Union Cabinet as civil aviation minister on 18 December 2011.
a) Ajit Singh
b)
Jayant Chaudhary
c)
Devendra Nagpal
d)
Sanjay Singh Chauhan

60. Popularly known as Adam Gondvi, this Hindi poet who  wrote revolutionary poetry focusing on the pathetic state of dalits and the poor breathed his last in Lucknow on 18 December 2011. Name the poet.
a) Bharat Bhusan
b)
Ram Nath Singh
c)
Uday Prakash
d)
Shail Chaturvedi
e)
Naresh Mehta

61. The Union cabinet of India on 22 December 2011 approved __ percent share for minorities within the 27% OBC quota in jobs and university seats.
a) 4.5
b)
5.6
c)
3.4
d)
5

62. The Manipur Legislative Assembly passed the Manipur Lokayukta Bill, 2011. Manipur will be the __state in North-Eastern India to have alegislation of Lokayukta.
a) Second
b)
Third
c)
First
d)
Fourth

63.
(1) Former Czech president Vaclav Havel who had been suffering from chronic respiratory problems died on 18 December 2011. Which of the following facts mentioned about him is/are not true?
(2) He was the tenth and last president of Czechoslovakia (1989–92) and the second President of the Czech Republic (1993–2003)
(3) He played a seminal role in the Velvet Revolution that ended four decades of repression by a regime which Havel ridiculed as Absurdistan.
(4) He co-authored the human rights manifesto Charter 77, which drew wide attention in the West.
(5) As president, he oversaw the country's transition to democracy and a free-market economy and also the peaceful 1993 breakup into the Czech Republic and Slovakia.
a) Only 3
b)
Only 1
c)
1 & 4
d)
Only 4

64. The enigmatic leader of North Korea Kim who led his nation for 17 years through a devastating famine while frustrating the United States and other global powers with approach to talks on giving up nuclear arms in return for food and other assistanceon died on 17 December 2011 after he suffered a massive heart attack. Name the leader
a) Kim Jong-il
b)
Kim Il-sung
c)
Kim Jong-un
d)
Kim Jong-chul

65. Which Controversial film based on the 116-year-old Mullaperiyar dam and directed by Sohan Roy made it to a shortlist for the Oscars under the Best Picture category?
a) Rio and The Muppets
b)
Undefeated
c)
Project Nim
d)
Dam 999

66. India and Australia on 16 December 2011 signed an agreement to amend DTAA (Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement).  DTAA was signed between India and Australia in__.
a) 1990
b)
1991
c)
1992
d)
1995

67. The Indian women's hockey team defeated Ireland 4-1 win to clinch the bronze medal in the four-nation tournament held in Parana, Argentina in December 2011. Which team won the gold medal?
a) South Africa
b)
USA
c)
Argentina
d)
Pakistan

68. Who defeated ace badminton player and World No. 4 Saina Nehwal of India in the women’s singles final of the $500000 BWF World Super Series badminton championship in China on 18 December 2011?
a) Zhang Ning
b)
Xie Xingfang
c)
Xu Huaiwen
d)
Wang Yihan

69. Which India striker was on 20 December 2011 voted Player of the Year by the All India Football Federation?
a) Sunil Chhetri
b)
Savio Medeira
c)
Kyrshan Lyngshing
d)
Babu Mani

70. Diesel consumption in Delhi declined by a startling 26% in 2010-11 compared to 2009-10. Delhi was however found to have used 2.24% more petrol in the same period. As per the latest Delhi government figures, the consumption of diesel in the city stood at what amount in 2010-2011?
a) 10.98 lakh metric tonnes
b)
7.5 lakh metric tonnes
c)
8.11 lakh metric tonnes
d)
6 lakh metric tonnes

71. Fears of continuing economic slowdown, lack of decision making at the centre, rising fiscal deficit combined with not-so-impressive revenue collections upset Dalal Street investors on 20 December 2011. Which of the foolowing facts  related to the above statement is/are not true?
1. Fears of continuing economic slowdown, lack of decision making at the centre, rising fiscal deficit combined with not-so-impressive revenue collections led to a 204 points loss in sensex that ended at 15175
2. The slide on 20 December 2011 was triggered by FII selling which recorded a net outflow of Rs 600 crore, taking the month’s total net outflow to about Rs 1700 crore.
3. The combined effect of the market’s slide and the depreciation of the rupee forced India to exit from the select group of countries with a $1 trillion market capitalization
4. There was not even a single ADR issue in 2011. However, companies raised about $220 million through GDRs (Global Depository Receipts) during 2011
a) Only 1
b)
3 & 4
c)
Only 3
d)
Only 2

72. Credit rating agency Moody's on 21 December 2011 upgraded the credit rating of the Indian government's bonds from the speculative to investment grade. Which of the following facts related to the above statement is/are true?
1. According to a release issued by the Finance Ministry, Moody's unified India's local and foreign currency bond ratings at Baa3
2. Moody's Investor Service upgraded its local currency rating for Indian government bonds to Baa3 which is speculative grade as compared to the earlier Ba1 which is junk or investment grade.
3. India's foreign currency bond ceiling is unchanged at Baa2, and the foreign currency bank deposit ceiling is Baa3. The local currency bond and bank deposit ceilings are unified at A1.
4. The government's local currency short-term rating has been changed to P-3 from NP, indicating the government's ability to repay short-term debts.
a) Only 2
b)
Only 1
c)
1 & 3
d)
Only 4

73. According to official data released here on 22 December 2011, food inflation dropped sharply to an almost four-year low of what per cent during the week ended 10 December indicating an overall easing of prices?
a) 1.5%
b)
1.32%
c)
1.81 %
d)
2.32%

74. Which of India's leading commodity bourses on 20 December 2011 became the world's fifth-largest commodity futures exchange?
a) National Multi Commodity Exchange of India
b)
Bharat Diamond Bourse
c)
Multi Commodity Exchange
d)
Bombay Stock Exchange

75. Ravi Ruia decided on 21 December 2011 to step down as chairman of which of the following London-listed after a trial court admitted a criminal chargesheet filed by the investigating agency, CBI?
a) Essar Energy
b)
Essar Shipping
c)
Essar Oil
d)
Eaasr Technologies

76. Which company won the award for Alternative Thinking and Driving Positive Change in the Fleet Owner category at the Mahindra Navistar Transport Excellence Awards 2011 at Hotel Ashok here on 20 December 2011?
a) Tata Motors
b)
Hero Group
c)
Edu Comp
d)
Agarwal Packers & Movers

77. Which PSU lender decided to aggressively market its gold loan scheme for farmers to prevent defaults after the agriculture sector witnessed a sharp spike in bad debt in the past one year?
a) Union Bank
b)
United Bank of India
c)
Industrial Development Bank of India
d)
State Bank of India

78. Who did the Central Government appoint as Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of Andhra Bank?
a) B. A. Prabhakar
b)
O. P. Bhatt
c)
Pratip Chaudhuri
d)
S. Vishvanathan

79. The directorate general of hydrocarbons (DGH), the technical arm of the oil ministry approved which company’s proposal to commence production from Bhagyam, the second-largest oil field in the Rajasthan block?
a) Essar Oil
b)
ONGC
c)
Cairn India
d)
Indian Oil

80. Scientists discovered that the protein__ is responsible for regulating fatty acid oxidation in the liver and is critical for metabolism.
a) CPT1
b)
CTP1
c)
CTT1
d)
CPT2

81. British Scientists recently developed a technology to produce pocket TV. Consider the following statements:
i) Scientists developed a new form of light-emitting crystals, known as quantum dots.
ii) These tiny crystals are 100000 times smaller than the width of human hair.
Choose the right option:
a) Both i and ii are correct.
b)
Only i is correct.
c)
Only ii is correct.
d)
Neither i nor ii is correct.

82. Scientists developed a hydrogel that regenerate healthy and scar-free tissue on skin damaged by severe burns.  Consider the following statements:
i) The hydrogel helps in formatting of new blood vessels and skin including hair follicles.
ii) The injured soldiers, fire victims and people with third degree burns can avail of the gel.
Choose the right option:
a) Both i and ii are correct.
b)
Only i is correct.
c)
Only ii is correct.
d)
Neither i nor ii is correct.

83. The Sangita Kalanidhi M.S. Subbulakshmi Award was presented to whom at the inauguration of the 85th annual conference of the Music Academy in Chennai on 15 December 2011?
a) S.R. Nathan
b)
Trichy Sankaran
c)
Subramania Pillai
d)
Subramaniyam Iyer

84. The 40th anniversary of vijay diwas was celebrated on which day marking the finest hour of the Indian armed forces when they defeated Pakistan, leading to the creation of Bangladesh in 1971?
a) 12 December
b) 15 December
c) 16 December
d) 18 December

85. The Himachal Pradesh Cabinet on 15 December 2011 approved amendment to the state industrial policy. Consider the following statements:
i) The amended industrial policy seeks to promote environmentally sustainable development in the state and encourage cleaner production and adoption.
ii) Under this policy, disincentive industries will be put on negative list.
Choose the right option:
a) Both i and ii are correct.
b)
Only i is correct.
c)
Only ii is correct.
d)
Neither i nor ii is correct.

86. The Supreme Court of India directed Tamil Nadu to ensure that the water level in the Mullaperiyar dam does not exceed __but declined to entertain Kerala’s plea for reducing the level to__.
a) 136 feet; 120 feet
b)
120 feet; 136 feet
c)
140 feet; 112 feet
d)
150 feet; 140 feet

87. A parliamentary committee on 13 December 2011 rejected the proposal to allow what percentage foreign direct investment in the insurance sector?
a) 51%
b)
49%
c)
43%
d)
29%

88. According to data from research body All India Organisation of Chemists and Druggists (AIOCD), Indian drugmakers posted a certain per cent month-on-month growth in sales of November 2011 which was the highest in the past 14 months. What was the per cent of sales growth projected for the month?
a) 23%
b)
31%
c)
21%
d)
43%

89. The government waived loan of handloom weavers in India to help revive the sector under the scheme of Revival, Reform and Restructuring Package for Handloom Sector. What amount of loan was waived?
a) Rs 548.35 crore
b)
Rs 420.66 crore
c)
Rs 506.64 crore
d)
Rs 3521 crore

90. A committee on mutual funds, constituted by SEBI in december 2011 recommended to the regulator’s board to break down the bifurcation within the fee structure known as expense ratio. Which of the following facts are not true with regard to the above statement?
1. Currently  mutual funds are allowed to charge up to 2.25% as expense ratio. fund houses are allowed to accept only 1.25% as asset management charges
2. Funds with large corpuses currently charge 1.55% as expenses charges
3. SEBI was suggested to keep overall scheme expenses unchanged at 2.25% for schemes with assets under management not exceeding Rs 400 crore
4. Expense ratio is more than important in debt schemes where the rate of return is not hig.
a) 1 & 2
b)
3 & 4
c)
1 & 3
d)
Only 2
e)
None of the above

91.
Which player became the first player to win the Orders of Merit on both sides of the Atlantic on 11 December 2011 when he shot a closing 66 to finish third in the Dubai World Championship?
a) Luke Donald
b)
Alvaro Quiros
c)
Rory McIlroy
d)
Paul Lawrie

92. Which country defeated Spain 1-0 to win for the 4th time hockey’s Champions Trophy title on 11 December 2011?
a) Pakistan
b)
New Zealand
c)
Australia
d)
Greece

93. Name the woman squash player who on 10 December 2011 annexed the elusive women’s title while in the Senior National Squash Championship in Chennai.
a) Sarah Fitz-Gerald
b)
Dipika Pallikal
c)
Anaka Alankamony
d)
Sushma Pillai

94.
(1) The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT) on 5 December 2011 transferred indigenously-developed Gigabit Passive Optical Network (GPON) technology to seven telecom equipment manufacturers. Which of the following facts about the technology is not true?
(2) The GPON technology is a pivotal component required for broadband connectivity over optical fibre.
(3) C-DOT indigenously designed and developed GPON technology, which can be used to provide triple play (voice, video and data) through fibre-based networks
(4) The GPON technology was tested, validated, field-evaluated and made operational in MTNL's/VSNL’s network in Ajmer (Rajasthan)
(5) The technology will help fulfil requirements of major national programmes like the National Optical Fibre Network and the State Wide Area Network.
a) Only 1
b)
Only 3
c)
1 & 4
d)
Only 4

95. Bank lending to the priority sector grew at what percentagein October 2011 on an annual basis due to lower offtake by agriculture and MSME segments as well as decline in micro credit?
a) 10%
b)
12%
c)
13.7%
d)
8.3%

96. With the inauguration of the first state-of-the-art ATDC-SMART (Skill for Manufacturing Apparels through Research and Training) in Egmore, Chennai, the Ministry of Textiles launched which of the following schemes?
a) National Technology Mission for Technical Textiles
b)
Integrated Skill Development Scheme
c)
Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme (TUFS) For Textile
d)
Rural Textiles Technology Development Skill


97. Which bank signed a memorandum of understanding with Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) to use the National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) facility  to facilitate electronic funds transfer of policy payments to policyholders?
a) IDBI
b)
Corp Bank
c)
Indian Overseas Bank
d)
Dhanlaxmi Bank

98. World Aids Day is observed anually on 1 December 2011. What was the theme of World AIDS Day 2011?
a) Getting to Zero
b)
Stigma and Discrimination
c)
Women & AIDS
d)
Force For Change: World AIDS Campaign With Young People

99.
(1) An icon of Indian cinema and evergreen star Dev Anand died at the age of 88 in London on 3 December 2011 (4 December according to IST) after suffering a massive cardiac arrest. Which of the following facts about him is/are not true?
(2) Dev Anand started his career with Prabhat Films' Hum Ek Hain (1946) soon after he joined IPTA
(3) Anand started producing films after the success of Ziddi. He launched his own company Navketan in 1949 which, by 2011, had produced 31 films
(4) His first colour film, Johny Mera Naam with Waheeda Rehman was based on the novel of the same name by R. K. Narayan
(5) The Government of India honoured him with the Padma Bhushan in 2001 and the Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 2002
a) 1 & 4
b)
Only 3
c)
2 & 4
d)
1 & 4

100. The Golden Peacock Award for the Best Film was given to which of the following films at the 42nd International Film Festival of India which came to an end at the Kala Academy in Panaji, Goa on 3 December 2011?
a) Russian film Elena
b)
an Israeli film Restoration
c)
Columbian Film Porfirio
d)
Malayalam film Adaminte Makan Abu
 
Answer
1. (c) 26. (d) 51. (b) 76. (d)
2. (e) 27. (c) 52. (a) 77. (d)
3. (d) 28. (a) 53. (c) 78. (a)
4. (d) 29. (b) 54. (a) 79. (c)
5. (c) 30. (b) 55. (b) 80. (a)
6. (d) 31. (b) 56. (a) 81. (a)
7. (b) 32. (c) 57. (a) 82. (a)
8. (e) 33. (b) 58. (b) 83. (b)
9. (b) 34. (d) 59. (a) 84. (c)
10. (b) 35. (c) 60. (b) 85. (a)
11. (b) 36. (d) 61. (a) 86. (a)
12. (c) 37. (d) 62. (b) 87. (b)
13. (b) 38. (e) 63. (b) 88. (c)
14. (c) 39. (e) 64. (a) 89. (d)
15. (a) 40. (e) 65. (d) 90. (d)
16. (a) 41. (b) 66. (b) 91. (a)
17. (a) 42. (c) 67. (c) 92. (c)
18. (b) 43. (a) 68. (d) 93. (b)
19. (d) 44. (a) 69. (a) 94. (b)
20. (c) 45. (a) 70. (c) 95. (a)
21. (e) 46. (a) 71. (d) 96. (b)
22. (c) 47. (c) 72. (a) 97. (d)
23. (a) 48. (a) 73. (c) 98. (a)
24. (c) 49. (a) 74. (d) 99. (b)
25. (b) 50. (a) 75. (a) 100. (c)

Quantitative Aptitude Practice Questions

Directions (Q. 1-9): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

1. -84 x 29 + 365 = ?
   
(1) 2436    

(2) 2801    

(3) 2801
   
(4) 2071    

(5) None of these

2. (21.69)2 - √324 =?
(1) 440.4615    

(2) 425.4561    

(3) 452.4561

(4) 442.4651    

(5) None ofthese

3. (800 ÷ 64) x (1296 ÷ 36) = ?

(1) 420    

(2) 460    

(3) 500

(4) 540    

(5) None of these

4. (42 x 229)÷(9261)1⁄3 =?

(1) 452    

(2) 448    

(3) 458

(4) 456    

(5) None of these

5. (35423 +7104 +41720)-(317 x 89)=?

(1) 28213    

(2) 84307    

(3) 50694

(4) 54096    

(5) None of these

6. (9% of 386) x (6.5% of 144) = ?

(1) 340.1664    

(2) 325.1664    

(3) 333.3333
   
(4) 328.0065    

(5) None of these

7 . 4+4.44+44.4+4.04+444=?
(1) 500.88    

(2) 577.2    

(3) 495.22

(4) 472.88    

(5) None of these

8. 3√? = (36x24)÷9

(1) 884736    

(2) 804036    

(3) 854734

(4) 814736    

(5) None of these

9. (43% of 2750)- (38% of 2990) = ?

(1) 49.3    

(2) 44.7    

(3) 43.6

(4) 46.3    

(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 10-13): What should come in place of question.mark (?) in the following number series?

10. 13 14 30 93 376 1885 ?

(1) 10818    

(2) 10316

(3) 11316

(4) 11318    

(5) None of these

11. 4 6 9 13.5 20.25 30.375.?

(1) 40.25    

(2) 45.5625    

(3) 42.7525

(4) 48.5625    

(5) None ofthese

12. 400  240  144  86.4  51. 84  31.1 04 ?

(1) 19.2466    

(2) 17.2244    

(3) 16.8824

(4) 18.6624    

(5) None of these

13. 9 4.5 4.5 6.75 13.5 33.75 ?

(1) 101.25    

(2) 103.75    

(3) 99.75

(4) 105.50    

(5) None of these

14. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs 625 is the same as the loss incurred after seIling the article for Rs 435. What is the cost price ofthe article?

(1) Rs 530    

(2) Rs 520    

(3) Rs 540

(4) Rs 550    

(5) None of these

15. A sum of Rs 817 is divided among A, Band C such that 'A' receives 25% more than 'B' and 'B' receives 25% less than 'C'. What is A's share in the amount?

(1) Rs228

(2) Rs247

(3) Rs285

(4) Rs 304    

(5) None of these

16. Ms Sujata invests 7% ie Rs 2170, of her monthly salary in mutual funds. Later she invests 18% of her monthly salary in recurring deposits. Also, she invests 6% of her salary on NSC's. What is the total annual amount in- vested by Ms Sujata? .
(1) Rs 1,25,320

(2) Rs 1,13,520    

(3) Rs,I,35,120

(4) Rs 1,15,320    

(5) None of these

17. What is 30% of 40% of 2/5 2500?
(1) 500    

(2) 400    

(3) 360

(4) 120    

(5) None of these

18. A, B, C and D are four consecutive even numbers respectively and their average is 65. What is the product of A and D?

(1) 3968    

(2) 4216    

(3) 4092

(4) 4352    

(5) None of these

19. The sum offive numbers is 555. The average of the first two numbers is 75 and the third number is liS. What is the average of the last two numbers?

(1) 145    

(2) 290    

(3) 265

(4) 150    

(5) None of these

20. A car covers the first 35 km of its journey in 45 minutes and the remaining 69 km in 75 minutes. What is the average speed of the car?

(1) 42 kmlhr    

(2) 50 km/hr    

(3) 52 kmlhr

(4) 60 km/hr    

(5) None of these

21. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'PRIDE' be arranged?
   
(1) 60    

(2) 120    

(3) 15

(4) 360    

(5) None of these

22. The ages of Samir and Tanuj are in the ratio of 8 : 15 years respectively. After 9 years the ratio of their ages will be II : 18. What is the difference in years between their ages?
(1) 24 years

(2) 21 years.

(3) 20 years

(4)  33 years

(5)  None of these

Directions (Q. 23-27): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
23. 724.998+24.048+ 14.954=?    
(1) 8   
(2) 13   
(3) 2   
(4) 10   
(5) 16
24. (848.999+274.052)÷ 3.0054=?    
(1) 940   
(2) 836   
(3) 184   
(4)298   
(5)374
25.  3√184900 =?            
(1) 56   
(2) 44   
(3) 67   
(4) 33   
(5) 21
26. 18.5% of 425 + 16.2% of 388 =?    
(1) 141   
(2) 224   
(3) 116   
(4) 183   
(5) 215

27. 18.345 x 19.068 x ? = 11538.93375    
(1) 46    

(2) 61    

(3) 27    

(4) 33    

(5) 55


Directions (Q. 28-32): In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. "

28. 529 841 961 1296 1681 1849 2209


(1) 1296        

(2) 841     

(3) 961

(4) 1681        

(5) None ofthese

29. 13   14  27  45  68  109   177
   
(1) 27        

(2) 109        

(3) 45

(4) 68        

(5) None of these

30. 14 22 34.5 55.5 87.25 13.875 209.125
   
(1) 55.5    

(2) 34.5    

(3) 135.875

(4) 87.25    

(5) None of these

31. 274 301 426 769 1498 2824 5026

(1) 301    

(2) 426    

(3) 79
   
(4) 2824    

(5) None of these

32. 4  28  160   990   6970   55832   502560


(1) 160    

(2) 990    

(3) 55832

(4) 6970    

(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 33-37): What s Would come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

33. 89.4 x 412.8 x 648.1 =16?

(1) 41.8    

(2) 16.2    

(3) 18.4

(4) 25.6    

(5) None of these

34. 12% of 840 x 0.25% of 148 =?

(1) 37.296

(2) 101.17    

(3) 68.432

(4) 97.046.    

(5) None of these

35. A shopkeeper sells 200 metres of cloth for Rs 9,000 at a profit of Rs 5 per metre. What is the cost price of 1 metre of cloth?
(1) Rs45    

(2) Rs40    

(3) Rs35

(4) Rs30    

(5) None of these

36. the area of a circle is.1386 sq cm. What is the circumfer- ence of the circle?

(1) 142cm    

(2) 160cm    

(3) 130cm

(4) 132 cm    

(5) None of these

37. In a college a total number of 27 professors are appointed for all the faculties; viz Arts, Commerce and Science. If , equal number of professors are appointed for each of the faculties, how many professors are assigned to each faculty?

(1) 9    

(2) 12    

(3) 6

(4) 3    

(5) None of these     

38. Sridhar invests Rs 3,750 in shares, which is 25% of his monthly income. What is his monthly income?
(1) Rs 12,000    

(2) Rs 15,000    

(3) Rs 10,000

(4) Rs 16,000    

(5) None of these

39. Find the average of the following setof scores.

302, 152, 132, 122, 112
   
(1) 184        

(2) 165    

(3) 152

(4) 176        

(5) None of these

40. A bus covers a distance of 172 kms in 4 hours. What is the speed of the bus?
(1) 52km1hr    

(2) 47km1hr    

(3) 43km1hr

(4) 38 kmIhr    

(5) None of these

41. The total number of students in a school is 4800, out of which 60% are girls. What is the total number of boys in this school?


(1) 1920    

(2) 1934    

(3) 1980

(4) 1910    

(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 42-43): Each question below is followed by two statements A and B. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.

Give answer (1) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statementit alone  not sufficient

Give answer 2) if the statement C alone is sufficien, to an we: the question, but the statement A alone is not sufficient.

Give answer 3) ifboth statements A and B together are needed to answer the question.

Give answer 4) if either the statementAalone or the statement B ,alone IS sufficient to-answer the question.

Give answer 5) if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and B together, but need even more data.

42. How many women can complete a piece of work in 15 days?

A . 12 women can complete the same piece of work in 20 days.

B. 10 men can complete rhe same piece of work in 12 days.
43. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a. on an amount of Rs 12,000/- deposited in a bank?
A. The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest is Rs 172.80.
B. The simple interest for two years is Rs2,880.
Directions (Q. 44-48): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
44. (4576+3286+5639)÷(712+415+212)=?

(1) 18    

(2) 22    

(3) 34

(4) 10    

(5) 46

45.  675.456+ 12.492 x 55.671 =?

(1) 971    

(2) 1071    

(3) 1171

(4) 1271

(5) 1371

46. (447.22) 2=?

(1) 200000    

(2) 210000    

(3) 220000
   
(4) 230000    

(5) 240000

47. 4374562 x 64 = ? x 7777
(1) 360    

(2) 3600    

(3) 36000

(4) 360000    

(5) 3600000

48. (872% of 659) ÷ 543 = ?

(1) 17    

(2) 11    

(3) 21
   
(4) 27    

(5) 31

Directions (Q. 49-53): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

49. 5 9 18 34 59 95 ?


(1) 272    

(2) 168    

(3) 116

(4) 148    

(5) 144

50. 1200 480 192 76.8 30.72 12.288 ?

(1) 4.9152    

(2) 5.8192    

(3) 6.7112

(4) 7.6132    

(5) 8.5172

51. 963 927 855 747 603 423  ?

(1) 209

(2) 208    

(3) 207

(4) 206    

(5) 205

52. 841 .961 1089 1225 1369 1521. ?

(1) 1581            

(2) 1681        

(3) 1781

(4) 1881            

(5) 1981

53. 18  20  44  138  560  2810 ?

(1) 16818        

(2) 16836        

(3) 16854
   
(4) 16872         

(5) 16890

Directions (Q. 54-58): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 

54. 74+.12x0.75-6 =?

   
(1)
72    

(2)
67    

(3) 62

(4) 77    

(5) None of these

55. 8888 + 848 + 88 - ? = 7337 + 737

(1) 1750    

(2) 1650    

(3) 1550

(4) 1450    

(5) None of these

56. 515.15-15.51-1.51-5.11-1.11=?

(1) 491.91

(2) 419.91    

(3) 499.19

(4) 411.19    

(5) None of these

57. (?) 2 + (123) 2 = (246)  2 - (99)  2 - 2462

(1) 184    

(2) 186     

(3) 182

(4) 180    

(5) None of these

58. 414 x? x7=127512

(1) 36    

(2) 40    

(3) 44

(4) 48    

(5) None of these

59. [(84) 2 ÷28 x 12]÷24 =7 x ?

(1) 15    

(2) 17    

(3) 19

(4) 21    

(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 60-65): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.
60. 561204 x 58 =? x 55555
(1) 606
(2) 646  
(3) 556
(4) 716 5)586
61. 459.008 + 3.0056 x 88.862 =?
(1) 738
(2) 725  
(3) 695
(4) 752
(5) 666
62. (444%of531)÷972 =? 
(1) 4.5
(2) 0.5  
(3) 2.5   
(4) 8.5 5)6.5
63. (9321 +5406+ 1001)÷(498+929+660)=?
(1) 13.5
(2) 4.5  
(3) 16.5
(4) 7.5
(5) 10.5
64. 9654 /21 +7638 / 44 =?
   
(1) 633    

(2) 600    

(3) 643

(4) 621    

(5) 598
65. (621.52)2=?
(1) 386300
(2) 379300
(3) 398300
(4) 365300
(5) 356300

Directions (Q. 66-70): What SilUUili come in place of question mark ('?) in the following number series ?
66. 444 467 513 582 674 789 ?
(1) 950  
(2) 904   
(3) 927
(4) 881  
(5) 973
67. 23 25 53 163 657 3291 ?
(1) 16461 
(2) 13169   
(3) 9877
(4) 23045  
(5) 19753
68. 3 13 65 585 7605 129285 ?
(1) 2456415  
(2) 2235675   
(3) 2980565
(4) 2711985  
(5) 2197g45
69. 1 16 81 256 625 1296 ?
(1) 4096  
(2) 2401   
(3) 1764
(4) 3136  
(5) 6561
70. 12 12 18 45 180 1170 ?
(1) 12285  
(2) 10530   
(3) 11700
(4) 12870  
(5) 7605

Directions (Q.71-80): What should come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions?
71 .4+4.44+0.4+44.04+444=?
(1) 497.24  
(2) 487.66   
(3) 496.88
(4) 469.88  
(5) None of these
72. [(130)2÷ 25 x 15] ÷ 30 =?
(1) 352  
(2) 314   
(3) 326
(4) 338  
(5) None of these
73. 38+16x0.8=?
(1) 43.2  
(2) 50.8   
(3) 44.8
(4) 1.9  
(5) None of these
74. (?)2 +(65)2 = (160)2 -(90)2 -7191
(1) 75  
(2) 77   
(3) 79
(4) 81  
(5) None of these
75. 398 x ? x 7 = 47362
(1) 15  
(2) 13   
(3) 17
(4) 19  
(5) None of these
76. 1485x?=594
(1) 2/5
(2) 3/4
(3) 3/5
(4) 5/6
(5) None of these
77. 2116+692-?=1111
(1) 1667   
(2) 1677   
(3) 1687
(4) 1697   
(5) None of these
78. 6.896 + 3.753 - 2.005 + 1.004 =?
(1) 9.486   
(2) 9.648   
(3) 9.864
(4) 9.846   
(5) None of these
79. (6.5% of 375)-(0.85% of 230)=?
(1) 23.42   
(2) 24.24   
(3) 21.64
(4) 25.76   
(5) None of these
80. (13)54 x (13)-51 =.?
(1) 2197     .   
(2) 39   
(3) 169
(4) 130      
(5) None of these
81. 93. 2/7 x 5/6 x 3/8 x ? = 790

(1) 8848

(2) 8246

(3) 8484

(4) 8868
(5) None of these
82. 968 x 445 ÷ ?=17230.4
(1) 60 

(2) 40 

(3) 25 

(4) 35 

(5) None of these

83. (0.05 x 6.25) ÷ 2.5 =?

(1) 0.105

(2) 0.95

(3) 0.115

(4) 1.25 5)

(5) None of these

84. (41) 2 + (38) 2X (0.15) 2 =?

(1) 3125.0225    

(2) 1713.49

(3) 3125.15

(4) 59204.0225    

(5) None of these
85. In an election between two candidates, one got 72% of the total valid votes. 25% of the total votes are invalid. If the total votes are 8200, what is the number of valid votes the other person got?

(1)
1835    

(2)
1722

(3)
2050
   
(4)
4428    

(5)
None of these

86. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'WEDDING' be arranged?

(1)
5040    

(2)
2500

(3)
2520

(4)
5000    

(5)
Noneofthese

87. Milind takes as much time in running 15 metres as a car takes in covering 40 metres. What will be the distance covered by Milind during the time the car covers 2 km?
   
(1)
1000 metres    

(2)
600 metres    

(3)
650 metres

(4)
750 metres    

(5)
None of these

88. Four milkmen rented a pasture. A grazed 15 cows for 4 months, B grazed lQ cows for 2 months, C grazed 18 cows for 6  months, and D grazed 16 cows for 5 months. If A's share of rent is Rs 1,020, whatis C's share of rent?

(1)
Rs 1,836    

(2)
Rs 1,360    

(3)
Rs816

(4)
Cannot be determined

 (5)
None of these

Directions (Q. 89-92): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions given below. Out of 6500 students from the Arts wing of a college, 21 % of the total number of students have majored only in Psychology. 12% of the total number of students have majored only in English Literature, and 15% of the total number of students have majored only in Politics. 7% of the total number of students have majored only in Philosophy, and 10% of the total number of students have majored only in History. 8% of the total number of students have majored in both 'Psychology and Philosophy. 4% of the total number of students have majored in History as well as Politics, and 11 % of the total number of students have majored in English Literature as well as Politics. 9% of the total number of students have majored in Psychology and English Li .rature, and 3% of the total number of students have majored in History and Philosophy.

89.What is the ratio of the number of students majoring in Philosophy to the number of students majoring only in Psychology ?

(1)
4:5

(2)
5:6

(3)
6:7

(4)
7:8

(5)
None of these

90. Students majoring in History are approximately what percent of the total number of students majoring in Politics?

(1)
48    

(2)
61    

(3)
52    

(4)
57    

(5)
45

91.How many students have majored only in Politics?

(1)
650

(2)
975    

(3)
780

(4)
455

(5)
None of these

92. What is thetotal number of students majoring in English Literature?

(1)
780

(2)
1495

(3)
1300

(4)
2050

(5) None of these

93. Lowest number of students have majored in which subject?

(1)
History    

(2)
Philosophy    

(3)
Politics

(4)
English Literature     

(5)
Psychology
94. 9654 /21 +7638 / 44 =?
  
(1)
633   

(2)
600     

(3)
643

(4)
621   

(5)
598

95. (4.36) 2 x 66.5 - 371 = ?

(1)
902     

(2)
893     

(3)
871

(4)
888     .

(5)
880

Directions (Q. 96-100): What approximate value should come in place ofthe question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
96. 3√7469 x√ 668 =?

(1) 300    

(2) 350    
                                              
(3) 505

(4) 425    

(5) 575

97. 2.5 x 0.08 ÷ (1.9)2 =?

(1) 1.5    

(2) 0.8    

(3) 0.010

(4) 0.06    

(5) 2.1
Directions (Q. 98-99): Each qu stion below is followed by two statements A and B. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.
Give answer I) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the Statement A alone is not sufficient
Give answer 2) if the statement C alone is sufficien, to an we: the question, but the statement A alone is not sufficient.
Give answer 3) ifboth statements A and B together are needed to answer the question. Give answer 4) if either the statement Aalone or the statement B alone IS sufficient to-answer the question. Give answer 5) if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and 8 together, but need even more data.

98. How many women can complete a piece of work in 15 days?
A. 12 women can comnlete the same piece of work in 20 days.
B. 10 men can complete rhe same piece of work in 12 days.

99.  What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a. on an amount of Rs 12,000/- deposited in a bank? 

A. The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest is Rs 172.80.
B. The simple interest for two years is Rs2,880.
100. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'WEDDING' be arranged?
(1) 5040   
(2) 2500
(3) 2520
(4) 5000   
(5) Noneofthe

Answer
1. (4) 26. (2) 51. (2) 76. (1)
2. (3) 27. (5) 52. (4) 77. (4)
3. (5) 28. (2) 53. (4) 78. (2)
4. (3) 29. (1) 54. (1) 79. (2)
5. (5) 30. (4) 55. (1) 80. (5)
6. (2) 31. (1) 56. (3) 81. (1)
7. (2) 32. (3) 57. (3) 82. (3)
8. (1) 33. (5) 58. (3) 83. (5)
9. (1) 34. (4) 59. (5) 84. (2)
10. (4) 35. (4) 60. (5) 85. (4)
11. (3) 36. (4) 61. (5) 86. (5)
12. (2) 37. (1) 62. (2) 87. (1)
13. (4) 38. (2) 63. (3) 88. (3)
14. (1) 39. (4) 64. (4) 89. (4)
15. (1) 40. (4) 65. (1) 90. (2)
16. (3) 41. (5 66. (3) 91. (5)
17. (4) 42. (3) 67. (5) 92. (1)
18. (4) 43. (5) 68. (4) 93. (3)
19. (2) 44. (3) 69. (2) 94. (5)
20. (1) 45. (1) 70. (1) 95. (4)
21. (3) 46. (2) 71. (3) 96. (1)
22. (3) 47. (4) 72. (4) 97. (1)
23. (4) 48. (5) 73. (2) 98. (3)
24. (3) 49. (1) 74. (5) 99. (5)
25. (5) 50. (3) 75. (1) 100. (5)

Tuesday, January 24, 2012

PUNJAB NATIONAL BANK SPECIALIST OFFICERS EXAM 2011

Punjab National Bank (Specialist Officers) Exam., 2011
English Language : Solved Paper(Held on 28-8-2011)
GENERAL ENGLISH
(EXAM HELD ON: 18-08-2011)

Directions–(Q. 1-15) Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words / phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The advent of technology has fundamentally changed our lives, but one thing is for sure: The velocity of technological change will accelerate in an exponential manner with significant ramifications for all of us. Just imagine: over half of the scientists and engineers who have ever lived are alive today. China adds about 6.5 million graduates every year, half of them engineers and scientists. It is not only the sheer number of "innovators" who will push the boundaries of science, technology and ultimately life-change, but also the greater degree of interconnectivity which accelerates the generation of knowledge and creates a much more entrepreneurial environment for innovation and change.

What is particularly striking is this dimension of change. Today's technological evolution no longer solely affects what we are doing, but also who we are. Of course, the Internet is in many ways still a tool, but it has also become part of our DNA. This is true for governments (just think of WikiLeaks), for businesses and for individuals. In some way, we are "outsourcing" parts of ourselves – and this raises the question: Who owns our 'inner most' self -our desires or our mobile phone records, capturing where we are going and with whom we are meeting. Is it technology companies, our local phone providers, or is it still us ?

It is not only the velocity and nature of change, but also the increasing multiplicity of actors which characterizes the world of today and tomorrow. Ten years ago, the Group of Eight (G-8) countries represented more than 60% of the world's economic power. Today, much more than half of the world's economic growth is produced by so-called emerging countries. This multiplicity of actors not only highlights the geographic expansion and the extension of multi-stakeholder impact, but it also underscores the fact that power is shifting from the top down and from the centre to the periphery -leaving almost seven billion people who want to have their say and the capability to do so.

The geoeconomic and geopolitical power shifts taking place will fundamentally change our lifestyles – equally, so too will the cultural seismic shifts that are occurring. Going forward, prevailing Western values will have to increasingly accommodate Asian values, and vice-versa. By 2025, four of the five largest economies in the world will be non-Western and close to half of the Fortune 500 companies will originate in emerging countries. This will have a direct impact on all of us in terms of new brands, new lifestyles and new industrial ownership structures.

All of these accelerated trends – velocity, multiplicity, interconnectivity – are creating a completely new world in which the mastering of complexities will be the key challenge. Of course, the more complex the system is, the greater the risk of systemic breakdowns.

1. Which of the following is predicted about world' s largest economies by 2025 ?
(A) Three out of the five largest economies will be Asian
(B) Four out of the five largest economies will be western
(C) Three out of the five largest economies will be non-western
(D) The top five largest economies will be non-western
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

2. Which of the following is indicated about technology ?
(A) Technology changes will be more rapid now
(B) Technology will not bring about major societal changes now
(C) Number of innovations has gone down now
(D) Technologically advanced countries will represent 60% of world's economic power
(E) Telecommunication will see more advancement as compared to other areas
Ans : (A)

3. Which of the following would, in future, be true about cultural changes ?
(A) Western culture will affect Asian culture
(B) Asian culture will affect western culture
(C) Both western and Asian culture and values will adjust and mingle with each other
(D) No culture will be able to influence the other culture
(E) Inspite of other rapid changes, cultural changes will be slow
Ans : (C)


4. Which of the following is predicted about the Fortune 500 Companies ?
(A) Many of these companies will shift their base to the emerging countries
(B) Fortune 500 will be replaced by Fortune 2025
(C) Many new companies initiated in emerging countries will find place in Fortune 500
(D) None of the presently included countries will remain in Fortune 500 group by 2025
(E) The share of western countries will be less than 20% in Fortune 500
Ans : (C)

5. Which of the following may be the best title for the passage ?
(A) Technology
(B) New world complexities
(C) Convergence of Asian Values
(D) Innennost Vs outerself
(E) Changing lifestyle by 2025
Ans : (B)

6. Which of the following is true about world economy?
(A) The share of G-8 countries in the economic growth is just 10%
(B) More countries from western world now contribute to the world's economy
(C) There are five countries which contribute about 60% of world's economic growth
(D) More than 50% of world's economic growth now comes from developing countries
(E) The growth rate of GDP of most of the western countries is much more than what it was 10 years ago
Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following best describes the meaning of "push the boundaries" as used in the passage ?
(A) accept the challenge
(B) creating more competition
(C) prove to the world
(D) achieve the unimaginable
(E) take technology from one area to the other
Ans : (A)

8. Which of the following has now become a part of our DNA ?
(A) Global cooperation
(B) Internet
(C) Western values
(D) Complex life style
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. Which of the following would be the key challenge in the new world ?
(A) Controlling geopolitical power shifts
(B) Mastering the emerging complexities
(C) Pushing the boundaries of science
(D) Overcoming the power of internet
(E) The power shift from the centre to the periphery
Ans : (E)

Directions–(Q. 10-13) Choose the word(s) which is most nearly the same in meaning of the word printed in bold, as used in the passage.

10. accommodate(A) alter
(B) domesticate
(C) barrack
(D) include
(E) abide
Ans : (D)

11. ramifications
(A) ractifications
(B) backlashes
(C) consequences
(D) issues
(E) reverberations
Ans : (C)

12. accelerated
(A) new found
(B) unexpected
(C) rabid
(D) systemic
(E) fast paced
Ans : (E)

13. advent
(A) over-use
(B) importance
(C) approach
(D) arrival
(E) assurance
Ans : (D)

Directions–(Q. 14-15) Choose I the word(s) which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold, as used in the passage.

14. striking
(A) friendly
(B) undistinguished
(C) interlocking
(D) noticeable
(E) non-colliding
Ans : (B)

15. key
(A) subsidiary
(B) closed
(C) primal
(D) locked
(E) over-ruled
Ans : (A)

Directions–(Q. 16-25) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Delhi and Mumbai are the fifth and third cheapest cities of the world, out of 134 ...(16)..., says a news report. This comes as a ...(17)..., naturally, to those who live in these places and have been led to. ..(18) ... that they lead a pretty expensive life. Particularly what with the global commodity price boom pushing up material prices and all kinds of labour costs. With their considerable experience in 'arranging' surveys to deliver the desired results, many a Dilliwala or Mumbaikar might be tempted to ...(19)... the survey which came up with these results was ...(20)... by some sponsor or the other. Such cynicism goes out of the ...(21) ...when the same news report reveals that the survey was conducted by a respectable organisation. ...(22) ...a scrutiny of the top five cities and the two Indian cities, neighbours at the bottom yields a clue.

Tokyo leads the pack, followed by Oslo, Kobe, Paris and Zurich. One cannot readily vouch for Paris, but the other four are some of the most placid peaceful cities of the world. When we come to the bottom of the ranking, giving ...(23)... to Delhi and Mumbai are Tehran. Tunis and Karachi, the last mentioned being crowned the cheapest city of them all. Karachi gives the game away immediately, lifting all ...(24)... over what exactly is cheap in these places jostling for space at the bottom of the list. Life liberty and human dignity are what goes ...(25)... in these towns and what makes Delhi and Mumbai worthy contenders in the race to global cheapness. When crime goes unchecked, even after being widely reported and condemned, and criminals run rampant, life gets degraded, deformed, even extinguished. Life, in other words, gets cheap. Call it the lighter side of death.

16. (A) bigger
(B) participated
(C) sought
(D) designed
(E) surveyed
Ans : (E)

17. (A) reckoner
(B) shock
(C) mistake
(D) grief
(E) relief
Ans : (B)

18. (A) style
(B) believe
(C) display
(D) pretend
(E) deny
Ans : (B)

19. (A) deny
(B) protest
(C) oppose
(D) conclude
(E) conduct
Ans : (D)

20. (A) matched
(B) improved
(C) sponsored
(D) rejected
(E) manipulated
Ans : (E)

21. (A) doubt
(B) wisdom
(C) city
(D) door
(E) senses
Ans : (D)

22. (A) But
(B) Whether
(C) Would
(D) If
(E) As
Ans : (A)

23. (A) competing
(B) hints
(C) company
(D) significance
(E) threat
Ans : (C)

24. (A) inhibition
(B) definitions
(C) dependency
(D) mystery
(E) censor
Ans : (D)

25. (A) cheap
(B) unreported
(C) miss
(D) complex
(E) jostling
Ans : (A)

Directions–(Q. 26-35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it or a wrong word has been used. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence which has been lettered (A), (B), (C) or (D). The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

26. To begun with (A) / three agencies were (B) / retained to study (C) / and submit recommendations. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

27. To clamp down on illegal mining (A) / that loses money for the Exchequer, (B) / local people need to empowered (C) / to vet and oversee operations. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

28. In real terms, it (A) / means passing up on (B) / opportunities that presents (C) / themselves to us. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

29. The failure to control (A) / losses or increase revenues (B) / in a market growing (C) / in double digit is significantly. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

30. There have been (A) / marked changes, (B) / but social rather (C) / then economic. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

31. Notwithstand his (A) / frequent indisposition, (B) / he has diligently attended (C) / every single court hearing. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

32. The administration continued to (A) / improve bilateral relations, (B) / while deepening and (C) / formalizing the economic dialogue. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

33. The cause of rising crimes (A) / against women has its roots (B) / in the skewed sex ratio which (C) / males outnumber females. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

34. Now that more and more (A) / internet sites are tailored (B) / their services to the requirements of individual users, (C) / queries may yield different outcomes for different people. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

35. These are among (A) / the many contentious points (B) / that the author make (C) / in his controversial book. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

Prathama Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2011


English Language 
(Held on 25-9-2011) 


Directions–Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/expressions are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Battle of Gettysburg was fought during the first three days of July, 1863. During the night of July 4, Lee began to retreat southward while storm clouds' deluged the country with rain. When Lee reached the Potomac river with his defeated army, he found a swollen, impassable river in front of him, and a victorious Union army behind him. Lee was in a trap. He couldn't escape. US President, Abraham Lincoln saw that. Here was a golden, heaven-sent opportunity - the opportunity to capture Lee's army and end the war immediately. So, with a surge of high hope, Lincoln ordered General Meade not to call a council of war but to attack Lee immediately. Lincoln telegraphed his orders and then sent a special messenger to Meade demanding immediate action.

And, what did General Meade do ? He did the very opposite of what he was told to do. He called a council of war in direct violation of Lincoln's orders. Finally the water receded and Lee escaped over the Potomac with his forces.

Lincoln was furious. "What does this mean ?" Lincoln cried "Great God ! What does this mean ? We had them within our grasp, and had only to stretch forth our hands and they were ours; yet nothing that I could say or do could make the army move. Under the circumstances, almost any general could have defeated Lee.

In bitter disappointment, Lincoln sat down and wrote Meade this letter. And remember, at this period of his life, he was extremely conservative and restrained in his phraseology. So this letter coming from Lincoln in 1863 was tantamount to the severest rebuke.

"My dear' General,

"I do not believe you appreciate the magnitude of the misfortune involved in Lee's escape. He was within our easy grasp, and to have closed upon him would, in connection with our other late successes, have ended the war. As it is, the war will be prolonged indefinitely. If you could not safely attack Lee last Monday, how can you possibly do so south of the river, when you can take with you very few -not more than two-thirds of the force you then had in hand ? It would be unreasonable to expect and I do not expect that you can now effect much. Your golden opportunity is gone, and I am distressed immeasurably because of it."

What do you suppose Meade did when he read that letter ?

Meade never saw that letter. Lincoln never mailed it. It was found among Lincoln's papers after his death.

My guess is – and this is only a guess – that after writing that letter, Lincoln looked out of the window and said to himself, "Just a minute. May be I ought not to be so hasty. It is easy enough for me to sit here in the quiet of the White House and order Meade to attack; but if I had been up at Gettysburg, and if I had seen as much blood as Meade had seen during the last week, and if my ears had been pierced with the screams and shrieks of the wounded and dying, maybe I wouldn't be so anxious to attack either."

1. Which of the following is the author's guess about the reason for Lincoln's withholding the letter to General Meade ?
(A) There was no point in lamenting over spilt milk as the matter was already over
(B) Decisions taken while sitting in ivory tower may not be as appropriate as those taken after witnessing the battle field
(C) The blood seen at the battle field and the shrieks of the dying heard by Lincoln
(D) General's views should be considered by President not-withstanding their merits
(E) He wanted to avoid confrontation with the General at that critical hour
Ans : (B)

2. What would have been the probable consequences had General Meade followed Lincoln's orders ?
(a) It would have prolonged the war further, indefinitely
(b) Lee's army would have got enough time for a safe escape
(c) The Council of war would not have granted permission to carry out the orders
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (a) and (c) only
(C) (b) and (c) only
(D) All the three (a), (b) and (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

3. Abraham Lincoln had ordered General Meade not to……………..
(a) attack Lee while he had been at a disadvantage due to flooded river
(b) let Lee escape so that the war could be ended immediately
(c) call a council of war to discuss the attack on Lee's forces
(A) All the three
(B) (a) and (b) only
(C) (a) and (c) only
(D) (b) and (c) only
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


4. In the context of the passage, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT……………..
(A) General Meade would have found it difficult to win the war after Lee's safe escape
(B) General Meade failed to end the war because of the swollen Potomac river
(C) Abraham Lincoln's orders were violated by General Meade
(D) When Potomac river was in spate, Lincoln considered it as a golden opportunity
(E) Abraham Lincoln refrained from sending the letter to General Meade
Ans : (B)

5. What was the situation that made Lee uncomfortable on the fourth day of war while retreating ?
(A) His army had been defeated in a very humiliating manner
(B) He was trapped in an ambush laid down by the enemy's army
(C) His army was sandwiched between enemy's forces and a swollen river
(D) Storm clouds had deluged the country with heavy rains
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. What could be the probable reason why General Meade didn't follow Lincoln's orders ?
General Meade……………..
(A) knew that Lincoln was not empowered to issue such orders
(B) did not wish to terminate war so early
(C) was rule-bound and wanted to follow orders of Council of War
(D) having defeated the enemy, wanted to avoid further bloodshed
(E) was aware of the danger of crossing the swollen Potomac river
Ans : (D)

7. What was the outcome of General Meade' s inaction on Abraham Lincoln's orders ?
(a) Lee and his army could escape safely
(b) It infuriated Abraham Lincoln
(c) Lee's army was defeated and had to retreat
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (a) and (c) only
(C) (b) and (c) only
(D) All the three
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. The contents of the passage reveal which qualities of General Meade ?
(A) Timidity and arrogance
(B) Courage and humanitarian consideration
(C) Obedience and bravery
(D) Treachery and lack of patriotism
(E) Undue compassion for enemy and lawlessness
Ans : (B)

9. Abraham Lincoln was extremely annoyed with General Meade because…………….. (A) the latter had hurt his ego by violating his orders
(B) the General had procrastinated on his orders due to inertia
(C) a golden opportunity to win the war early was lost
(D) the latter had colluded with the enemy General
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 10-12) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST NEARLY THE SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold.
10. Conservative
(A) Traditional
(B) Negative
(C) Backward
(D) Biased
(E) Unsymmetrical
Ans : (A)

11. Distressed
(A) Relieved
(B) Annoyed
(C) Sad
(D) Anxious
(E) Devastated
Ans : (B)

12. Grasp
(A) Understand
(B) Seize
(C) Knowledge
(D) Reach
(E) Assimilate
Ans : (B)

Directions–(Q. 13-15) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/group of words printed in bold.

13. Surge
(A) Thinning
(B) Flash
(C) Drought
(D) Iota
(E) Miniscule
Ans : (A)

14. Violation
(A) Breach
(B) Honouring
(C) Obedient
(D) Confirmation
(E) Regulation
Ans : (B)

15. Receded
(A) Accumulated
(B) Extended
(C) Deflated
(D) Reflected
(E) Advanced
Ans : (E)

Directions–(Q. 16-20) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) What made him one of the richest men in the USA ?
(b) He had hundreds of men working for him.
(c) And he knew how to handle these knowledgeable men.
(d) What made Andrew Carnegie a successful businessman?
(e) They knew far more about steel than he did.
(f) He was called the steel king, yet he himself knew little about manufacture of steel.

16. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (B)

17. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (E)

18. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (A)

19. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (f)
(B) (e)
(C) (d)
(D) (c)
(E) (b)
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (f)
(B) (e)
(C) (d)
(D) (c)
(E) (b)
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 21-25) Against each question number, an incomplete statement is provided. In the next column, there are fillers denoted by (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h) and (i). You have to find out which one, two or more of these can grammatically and meaningfully complete the incomplete statement provided against the question number. Accordingly, mark your answer where .answer choices are provided against question number repeated below the statement and fillers.
(a) he had to pay what the vendor had insisted on.
(b) yet, he seldom wins any easy bargain.
(c) yet, he somehow manages to maintain a win-win situation.
(d) and therefore, he always gets an edge over others.
(e) still, he rarely succeeds in being a beneficiary.
(f) but he refrains from seeking any benefits out of that strength.
(g) people are carried away by his perceived quality.
(h) he uses it for the society and not for self
(i) how can one expect him to benefit ?

21. His misunderstanding is that he acquired a good trick of the trade…………..
(A) (i) only
(B) Either (d) or (e)
(C) (g) only
(D) (d) only
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

22. He projects himself as a likeable person without really being so…………..
(A) (e) only
(B) (g) only
(C) (c) only
(D) (a) only
(E) Either (c) or (g)
Ans : (B)

23. His persuasive skills are of a higher order…………..
(A) (i) only
(B) (a) only
(C) (c) only
(D) (g)only
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

24. Despite being good at negotiations…………..
(A) (a) only
(B) (b) only
(C) Either (a) or (c)
(D) Either (a) or (b)
(E) Either (b) or (c)
Ans : (A)

25. He has serious limitations in convincing others…………..
(A) (e) only
(B) (a) only
(C) (c) only
(D) (d) only
(E) Either (d) or (e)
Ans : (C)

Directions –(Q. 26-35) Which of the following phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer i.e. "No Correction Required".

26. Favourable changes would be visible if proper information will be shared without any reservations.
(A) will be visible if proper information would be shared
(B) would be visible if proper information is shared
(C) would be visible through proper share of information
(D) were visible after share of information will be proper
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (B)

27. In the monsoon, large branches of trees suddenly break up and fall, wreck parked cars or a passing pedestrian.
(A) break up and fall suddenly, wreck
(B) suddenly break up, fall and wreck
(C) suddenly break off and fall, wrecking
(D) suddenly wreck, fall and break off
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

28. People had been motivated to join the movement to fight poverty and use the armed struggle to get social justice.
(A) are motivated to join
(B) were motivated to joining
(C) had motivation for joining
(D) had been motivated for joining
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)

29. The Government discovered that though the scientist's seniority was entitled the highest grade in the service, his claims had been over-looked.
(A) scientist was entitled to the I highest grade by his seniority
(B) seniority of the scientist had been entitled to the highest grade .
(C) highest grade was entitled to the scientist with his seniority
(D) seniority was a factor to decide entitlement of the scientist to highest grade
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (A)

30. Through the experiment, the boy, had gained just enough knowledge to whet his appetite for more.(A) just enough knowledge to his appetite whetting for more
(B) enough knowledge just to whet his appetite much more
(C) just enough knowledge for whetting more and more appetite
(D) knowledge enough to whet is much more appetite
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)

31. The relationship has perceived by people of both countries as mutually beneficial and rewarding, so that they will develop trust and confidence.
(A) perception of relationship between people
(B) perceived relationship among people
(C) relationship as perceived by people
(D) relationship has to perceived by people
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (D)

32. While acknowledging his knowledge and technical competence, the official sources lay down stress on his Integrity.(A) lay upon stress on the integrity
(B) lay off stress on his integrity
(C) lay stress on his integrity
(D) lay stress on him being a person on integrity
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

33. There is an impact assessment zone where radiation levels are regularly monitoring.
(A) level is regularly monitoring
(B) level is regular to monitor
(C) levels are regularly monitored
(D) level is monitoring regularly
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

34. What should they do with the enormous wealth is their lookout.
(A) they should have done with the enormous wealth have
(B) should they do if the wealth is enormous is
(C) should they be doing for the enormous wealth is
(D) they should do with the enormous wealth is
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)

35. Those who voted for change in the region now wonder about its whereabouts.(A) are now wonderful about its whereabouts
(B) have now wondered of its whereabouts
(C) now wonder at whereabouts of themselves
(D) wonder about their whereabouts now
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (D)

Directions–(Q. 36-40) In each sentence below there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence, there are five pairs of words denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair best fits 'in the blanks in the same serial order to make the sentence meaningfully complete. The letter of that pair is the answer.

36. She had done her graduation and has……………..working in the company……………..nearly twenty years.
(A) is, since
(B) is, from
(C) was, since
(D) been, for
(E) started, about
Ans : (D)

37. Although I was……………..in front of the house, I could not……………..it due to lot of changes around.
(A) facing, find
(B) standing, recognize
(C) right, believe
(D) working, help
(E) alighted, sense
Ans : (B)

38. Spending time is not a……………..as there are numerous……………..to keep me busy.
(A) boon, action
(B) disaster, works
(C) difficulty, occasions
(D) solution, problems
(E) problem, activities
Ans : (E)

39. He realized that poverty can be……………..not by raising slogans, but by……………..more and more jobs for the unemployed.
(A) eliminated, doing
(B) handled, enhancing
(C) eradicated, creating
(D) elevated, assigning
(E) dealt, offering
Ans : (C)

40. When the suppliers came to know that the li1aterial we purchased was for……………..work, they offered generous discount and also made free……………..
(A) relief, delivery
(B) personal, supply
( C) our, manufacture
(D) exceptional, resources
(E) trivial, passage
Ans : (A)

Directions–(Q. 41-50) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The latest official figures of 2010 on ...(41)... say this: "A typical Indian worker is male,
...(42)... working in his midtwenties, is presumably better educated than before, ...(43)... most likely to find work as casual labour the ...(44)... secure of jobs. He is also more likely to ...(45)... a job, less likely to be interested in one, and will surely earn better money. His wife is less likely to work."

This is just the sort of ...(46)... that the government cautions observers not to paint, pointing to the formidable armies of the self-employed-those who ...(47)... your shoes, sell you roadside tea, and build a dhaba or a mechanic's shop-in the workforce. But be it the 'casual" workers or the self-employed, these are not the big, sweeping. ..( 48) ...that one expects to see 20 years after a big country starts liberalizing. ...(49) ..., the pro-portion of Indians in manufacturing jobs hasn't changed significantly ...(50)... the 90's.

41. (A) development
(B) economy
(C) employment
(D) education
(E) statistics
Ans : (C)

42. (A) decides
(B) starts
(C) neglects
(D) avoids
(E) pretends
Ans : (B)

43. (A) yet
(B) hence
(C) obviously
(D) and
(E) although
Ans : (A)

44. (A) financially
(B) more
(C) certainly
(D) least
(E) better
Ans : (D)

45. (A) assign
(B) seek
(C) create
(D) get
(E) delegate
Ans : (B)

46. (A) image
(B) guess
(C) riddle
(D) happening
(E) forecast
Ans : (A)

47. (A) wear
(B) polish
(C) handle
(D) sell
(E) steal
Ans : (B)

48. (A) realities
(B) tones
(C) alarms
(D) events
(E) changes
Ans : (A)

49. (A) Hence
(B) Liberally
(C) Subsequently
(D) Luckily
(E) Sadly
Ans : (E)

50. (A) before
(B) in
(C) since
(d) during
(E) over
Ans : (D)