IBPS COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE PRACTICE MODEL PAPER

1.    The instructions that tell a computer how to carry out the processing tasks are referred to as computer .........
1) programs  
2) processors
 3) input devices  
4) memory modules
5) None of these


2.    An area of a computer that temporarily holds data waiting to be processed is ..........
1) CPU 
2) Memory
3) Storage  
4) File
5) None of these

3.    To select or unselect one word to the right
1) CTRL + SHIFT  
2) CTRL + SHIFT + UP Arrow
3) CTRL + SHIFT + Down Arrow
4) CTRL + SHIFT + Right Arrow
5) None of these

4.    To maximize or restore a selected window
1) CTRL + F7  
2) CTRL + F10
3) CTRL + F8  
4) CTRL + F9
5) None of these

5.    To Copy a picture of the selected window to the clipboard
1) ALT + TAB  
 2) Ctrl + TAB
3) ALT + Print Screen
4) Both (1) and (2)
5) None of these

6.    .......... is the key to close a selected drop - down list; cancel a comm-and and close a dialog box.
1) TAB  
2) SHIFT
3) ESC  
4) F10
5) None of these

7.    ......... is the key we use to run the selected command.
1) SHIFT  
2) TAB
3) ENTER  
4) CTRL
5) None of these

8.    ............ is the functional key to display save-as box.
1) F5  
2) F6
3) F9  
4) F12
5) None of these

9.    ............ is the combination of keys to switch between the last four places that you have edited
1) ALT + CTRL + Z  
2) ALT + CTRL + Y
3) ALT + TAB + Z  
4) ALT + SHIFT + Z
5) None of these

10.    ............ is the Keyboard shortcut key to insert auto sum
1) ALT  
2) ALT=
3) ALT+  
4) ALT–
5) ALT+CTRL

11.    Data becomes ................ when it is presented in a format that people can understand and use
1) processed  
2) graphs
3) information 
4) presentation
5) None of these

12.    The term ............. designates equipment that might be added to a computer system to enhance its functionality.
1) digital device  
2) system add-on
3) disk pack  
4) peripheral device
5) None of these

13.    A ............ is a microprocessor - based computing device.
1) personal computer
2) mainframe
3) workstation   
4) server
5) None of these

14.    RAM can be thought of as the ......... for the computer's processor
1) factory  
2) operating room
3) waiting room  
4) planning room
5) None of these

15.    Which of the following are the functions of a operating system
1) Allocates resources
 2) Monitors Activities
3) Manages disks and files
4) All of the above
5) Only 1 and 2

16.    To move a copy of file from one computer to another over a communication channel is called ?
1) File transfer  
2) File encryption
3) File modification  
4) File copying
5) None of these

17.    The primary function of the ............ is to set up the hardware and load and start an operating system
1) System Programs  
2) BIOS
3) CP  
4) Memory
5) None of these

18.    What kind of memory is both static and non - volatile ?
1) RAM  
2) ROM
3) BIOS  
4) CACHE
5) 5) None of these

19.    .......... is computer software designed to operate the computer hardware and to provide platform for running application software
1) Application software
2) System software
3) Software  
4) Operating system
5) None of these

20.    The ......... is the amount of data that a storage device can move from the storage medium to the Computer per second
1) data migration rate  
2) data digitizing rate
3) data transfer rate
4) data access rate
5) None of these

21.    A device, which is not connected to CPU, is called as .......
1) land-line device  
2) On-line device
3) Off-line device  
4) Device
5) None of the above

22.    What is the other name for programmed chip?
1) RAM 
2) ROM
3) LSIC  
4) PROM
5) None of these

23.    On-line real time systems become popular in ........... generation
1) First Generation  
2) Second Generation
3) Third Generation  
4) FOurth Generation
5) None of thes

24.    You use a(n) ....., such as a keyboard or mouse, to input information
1) output device  
2) input device
3) storage device  
4) processing device
5) None of these

25.    ............ is the ability of a device to "jump" directly to the requested data
1) Sequential access
2) Random access
3) Quick access  
4) All of the above
5) None of these

26.    ............ provides process and memory management services that allow two or more tasks, jobs, or programs to run simultaneously
1) Multitasking  
2) Multithreading
3) Multiprocessing  
4) Multicoputing
5) None of these

27.    The task of performing operations like arithmetic and logical operations is called ......
1) Processing  
2) Storing
3) Editing  
4) Sorting
5) None of these

28.    The ALU and Control Unit joinly known as
1) RAM  
2) ROM
3) CPU  
4) PC
5) None of these

29.    RAM is an example of
1) Secondary memory
2) Primary memory
3) Main memory      
4) Both (1) and (2)
5) None of these

30.    Magnetic disk is an example of
1) Secondary memory
2) Primary meory
3) Main memory     
4) Botha (1) and (2)
5) None of these

31.    Which one of the following is NOT a computer language /
1) MS-Excel  
2) BASIC
3) COBOL  
4) C++
5) None of these

32.    Each memory cell has a unique number, assigned to it is called as the ....... of the cell
1) Address   
2) Register
3) Number  
4) Path
5) None of these

33.    RAm is also called as
1) Read / Write Memory
2) Long Memory
3) Permanent Memory
4) Primary Memory
5) None of these

34.    ............ Store data or information temporarily and pass it on as directed by the control unit
1) Address  
2) Register
3) Number  
4) Memory
5) None of these

35.    Select the Odd one
1) Operating system  
2) Interpreter
3) Compiler  
4) Assembler
5) None of these

36.    A ............ is an additional set of commands that the computer displays after you make a selection from the main menu
1) dialog box  
2) submenu
3) menu selection  
4) All of the above
5) None of these

37.    COBOL is an acronym for .............
1) Common Business Oriented Language
2) Computer Business Oriented Language
3) Common Business Operated Language
4) Common Business Organized Language
5) None of these

38.    All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT
1) hackers  
2) Spam
3) viruses  
4) identity theft
5) None of these

39.    Which of the following is NOT one of the four major data processing functions of a computer?
1) gathering data
2) processing data into information
3) analyzing the data or information
4) storing the data or information
5) None of these

40.    All of the following are examples of storage devices EXCEPT :
1) hard disk drives  
2) printers
3) floppy disk drives  
4) CD drives  
5) Pen drives

41.    The CPU and memory are located on the :
1) expansion board  
2) motherboard
3) storage device  
4) output device
5) display board

42.    .............. is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the same type of intelligence that humans do
1) Nanoscience  
2) Nanotechnology
3) Simulation
4) Aritificial intelligence (Al)
5) None of these

43.    Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a :
1) networkd  
2) mainframe
3) supercomputer  
4) client
5) internet

44.    When creating a computer program, the ......... designs the structure of the program
1) End user  
2) System Analyst
3) Programmer  
4) All of the above
5) None of these

45.    A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language at one time is called a/ an
1) interpreter  
2) simulator
3) characters  
4) numbers
5) None of these

46.    Computers process data into information by working exclusively with :
1) multimedia  
2) words
3) characters  
4) numbers
5) None of these

47.    The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this access is known as the :
1) digital divide  
2) Internet divide
3) Web divide  
4) broadband divide
5) None of these

48.    Computers manipulate data in many ways, and this manipulation is calld ......
1) upgrading  
2) processing
3) batching  
4) utilizing
5) None of these

49.    The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal's computer is an example of a law enforcement speciality called:
1) robotics     
2) simulation
3) computer forensics  
4) animation
5) None of these

50.    Where does most data go first with in a computer memory hierarchy ?
1) RAM  
2) ROM
3) BIOS  
4) CACHE
5) None of these

ANSWERS:
    1) 1    2) 2    3) 4    4) 2    5) 3    6) 3        7) 3    8) 4    9) 1    10) 2  
11) 3    12) 4    13) 1    14) 3    15) 4    16) 1    17) 2    18) 2        19) 2  
20) 3    21) 3    22) 2    23) 3    24) 2        25) 2    26) 1    27) 1    28) 3    29) 2    30) 1     
31) 1    32) 1    33) 1    34) 2    35) 1    36) 1   37) 1    38) 2    39) 3    40) 2  
41) 2    42) 4    43) 2    44) 2    45) 3    46) 4    47) 1    48) 2        49) 3    50) 1

IBPS GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following bodies tightened the norms for foreign exchange risk cover in India mentioning that only companies with a networth of Rs 200 crore can use derivatives to hedge against risk of volatility in currency rates?
a. IMF
b. Reserve Bank of India
c. SEBI
d. Union Ministry of Finance
Ans: b
2. Which body in India finally provided tax exemption on the 9.5 per cent interest income on PF deposits for 2010-11?
a. Reserve Bank of India
b. Income Tax Department
c. Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation
d. Corporate Affairs Ministry
Ans: b
3. (1) The report on Customer Service in Banks by a committee chaired by M. Damodaran, former Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) that was released on 3 July 2011 recommended an increased deposit insurance cover of Rs.5 lakh so as to encourage individuals to keep all their deposits in banks.
(2) The panel also suggested blocking of lost ATM cards through SMS and immediate restoration of funds in case of non-dispensation of cash at an ATM within 5 working days.
Which of the above is not true?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 & 2
d. None of the above
Ans: b
4. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a bid to tame inflationary pressure hiked the short-term indicative policy rate (repo rate) by 50 basis points on 26 July 2011. The repo rate currently stands at what percentage?
a. 7%
b. 7.5%
c. 8%
d. 8.5%
Ans: c
5. Which bank posted a 99 per cent drop in net profit at Rs 21 crore for the fourth quarter ended 31 March 2011 against Rs 1867 crore during the corresponding period in 2010?
a. Indian Overseas Bank
b. State Bank of India
c. Bank of India
d. United Bank of India
Ans: b
6. Who did global payments processing company MasterCard appoint as the General Manager, South Asia and Country President, India?
a. T. V. Seshadri
b. Vicky Bindra
c. Tunde Lemo
d. Ajay Banga
Ans: a
7. Government of India on 19 July 2011 appointed Usha Ananthasubramanian, former general manager of Bank of Baroda (BoB) as executive director of which public sector lender?
a. Central Bank of India
b. Punjab National Bank
c. United Bank of India
d. Gramin Bank
Ans: b
8. Name the public sector lender that selected Metlife as its partner for a proposed foray into the life insurance segment.
a. Syndicate Bank
b. Punjab National Bank
c. Corporation Bank
d. United Bank of India
Ans: b
9. Which bank signed a memorandum of understanding with Dewan Housing Finance Corporation (DHFL) under which DHFL will distribute home loans to Yes Bank's customers?
a. Canara Bank
b. ABN Amro bank
c. Yes Bank
d. HSBC
Ans: c
10. Which life insurance company in India launched a new non-linked health insurance plan, Jeevan Arogya?
a. HDFC Standard Life Insurance Co. Ltd
b. Life Insurance Corporation of India
c. IDBI Fortis Life Insurance Company Ltd.
d. SBI Life Insurance Co. Ltd
Ans: b
11. Which of the following public sector banks in November 2011 froze its lending to the power sector?
a. State Bank of India
b. Allahabad Bank
c. Punjab National Bank
d. United Bank of India
Ans: b
12. Which Indian bank on 10 May 2011 raised benchmark prime lending rate 75 basis points to 14% following raising of interest rates by RBI by basis points on 3 May 2011?
a. State Bank of India
b. Union Bank
c. Punjab National Bank
d. Bank of Baroda
Ans: a
13. The Reserve Bank of India on 26 April 2011 fined 19 banks, including the country's top private and foreign banks for violating its guidelines on derivatives. Which is the only public sector bank on the list of banks to be fined?
a. State bank of India
b. Punjab National Bank
c. Bank of India
d. Indian Bank
Ans: a
14. The Reserve Bank of India on 25 August 2011 released its Annual Report for 2010-11. Which of the following was not discussed in the Annual Report the Central Board of the RBI?
a. assessment of the macroeconomic performance during 2010-11
b. prospects for 2011-12
c. working and operations of the Reserve Bank and its financial accounts
d. role of regulatory bodies in controlling the financial markets
Ans: d
15. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) panel headed by headed by Usha Thorat, Director, Centre for Advanced Financial Research and Learning (CAFRAL) on 29 August 2011 came up with suggestion on non-banking finance company (NBFC). Which of the following related to this statement is not true?
1. The panel suggested the central bank to insist on a minimum asset size of more than Rs.25 crore for registering any new non-banking finance company (NBFC)
2. Transfer of shareholding, direct or indirect, of 25 per cent and above, change in control, merger or acquisition of any registered NBFC will require prior approval of the Reserve Bank.
3. Tier-I capital for capital to risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR) purposes would be specified at 12 per cent to be achieved in three years for all registered deposit-taking and non-deposit-taking NBFCs.
4. NBFCs would be subject to regulations similar to banks while lending to stock brokers and merchant banks and similar to stock brokers, as specified by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
a. 1 & 4
b. 2 & 4
c. Only 4
d. Only 1
Ans: d
16. Which Indian PSU bank in tune with its plans to expand its retail division in the UK entered the mortgage market in the country for the first time?
a. Punjab National Bank
b. Oriental Bank of Commerce
c. State bank of India
d. Indian Overseas Bank
Ans: c
17. Which of the following banks set up two loan processing centres for the small and medium enterprise (SME) segment on a pilot basis in Bangalore & in New Delhi in September 2011?
a. Corp Bank
b. United Bank of India
c. Syndicate Bank
d. Bank of Baroda
Ans: c
18. The government suspended M Ramadoss for alleged violations in issuing insurance cover to an airline during his stint as head of another state-run insurer. To which insurance group did he belong to?
a. New India Assurance
b. LIC
c. GIC
d. ICICI Insurance
Ans: a
19. Which of the following banks in early May 2011 entered into a tie-up with non-banking finance companies such as Future Capital, Bajaj Finance, and Reliance Capital to grow its retail portfolio?
a. Central Bank of India
b. State Bank of India
c. Bank of India
d. HDFC Bank
Ans: a
20. Which are the two Gujarat-based cooperative sector lenders on which Reserve bank of India imposed a financial penalty of Rs 1 lakh each for violation of various rules, including anti-money laundering guidelines?
1. Shree MahalaxmiMercantile Co-operative Bank
2. Rander People's Co-operative Bank
3. Abad District Co Op Bank
4. Ahd Mercantile Co-Op Bank Ltd
a. 1 & 2
b. 2 & 3
c. 1 & 4
d. 3 & 4
Ans: (a)

New Schedule for IBPS CWE Clerical Cadre Written Examination 2011

IBPS has scheduled three new dates for Common Written Examination (CWE) for Clerical Cadre. The exam will now be held on three dates namely 27 November 2011, 4 December 2011, and 11 December 2011. Prior to this, the CWE exam for clerical cadre was scheduled on 27 November 2011 only.

CLICK HERE to know more.

Moreover, IBPS has allotted centre other than the one opted by some candidates due to non-availability of adequate number of venues. The information about the exam date and allotted centre has been sent to the eligible candidates along with their call letter by e-mail (which they had used for registration).

SBI Associate Banks Probationary Officers Exam., 2011

General Awareness, Marketing and Computers

(Exam Held on 7-8-2011)

1. A major Public Sector Bank raised interest rates on loans by 25 basis points–was news in some major financial newspapers recently. This means bank has raised interest by 25 basis points of–
(A) Savings Bank Interest Rate
(B) Base Lending Rate
(C) Repo Rates
(D) Present Rates on Deposits
(E) Discounted Rates of Interest
Ans : (B)

2. The Finance Minister of India in one of his press conferences said that inflationary pressure is likely to continue following recent increase in rates of some commodities in international markets. Which of the following commodities was he referring to as it gets frequent increase at international levels and disturbs our Home Economy substantially ?
(A) Gold and Silver
(B) Petroleum products
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Sugar
(E) Jute and Jute products
Ans : (B)

3. Immediately prior to change in the measure of Food Inflation, which of the following indexes was being used for measuring it?
(A) Wholesale Price Index
(B) Consumer Price Index
(C) Interest Rates offered by banks on deposits
(D) Sensex and Nifty
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


4. What is the full form of 'FINO' a term we see frequently in financial newspapers ?
(A) Financial Investment Network and Operations
(B) Farmer's Investment in National Organisation
(C) Farmers Inclusion News and Operations
(D) Financial Inclusion Network and Operations
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following is / are commodity/ies on which subsidy is given to farmers / poor in India ?
1. Fertilizer
2. Kerosene
3. LPG
(A) Only1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)

6. 'Bhagyam Oilfields' which were recently in news are located in which of the following states in India ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Assam
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Karnataka
Ans : (A)

7. The Finance Minister of India recently decided to review the position of 'Bad Debts' in priority sector. Which of the following is/are the reason(s) owing to which PM took this decision ?
1. Bad Debt in agriculture is still rising substantially every year despite special treatment to it.
2. Bad Debt in other areas of priority sector is almost nil now,
3. Govt. is planning to disburse another installment of Rs. 1,60,000 crore which will bring 'Bad Debts' almost at 'Nil level' and no special treatment will be needed in next fiscal year.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)

8. Which amongst the following countries is not a member of the TAPI pipe line project, which was in news recently ?
(A) India
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Portugal
(D) Pakistan
(E) Turkmenistan
Ans : (C)

9. An agreement on Arms Reduction popularly known as 'START' is one of the major issues in the way of smooth relations between which of the following two countries ?
(A) India–Pakistan
(B) India–China
(C) China–Japan
(D) USA–Russia
(E) Russia–Iran
Ans : (D)

10. The International WWW Conference-2011 was organized in which of the following places in March 2011 ?
(A) London
(B) Paris
(C) Vienna
(D) Manila
(E) Hyderabad
Ans : (E)

11. Which of the following international agencies/ organizations had initiated an "International Convention for the 'Protection of All Persons from Enforced Disappearance' , which came into effect recently ?
(A) World Health Organisation (WHO)
(B) International Court of Justice
(C) International Maritime Organisation
(D) International Atomic Energy Agency
(E) United Nations organization
Ans : (E)

12. 'BRIC' which was the Organisation of 4 nations namely Brazil, Russia, India and China has now become 'BRICS'. Which is the fifth nation included in it ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Sp Lanka
(C) Singapore
(D) Spain
(E) South Africa
Ans : (E)

13. The process of acquisition of agricultural land and its compensation to farmers recently came up as a major issue in which of the following states ? (It also created law and order problem in the State)
(A) Haryana
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
(E) Punjab
Ans : (C)

14. What does the letter 'L' denote in term 'LAF' as referred every now and then in relation to monetary policy of the RBI ?
(A) Liquidity
(B) Liability
(C) Leveraged
(D) Longitudinal
(E) Linear
Ans : (A)

15. BP Pic which was in news recently is a major international company in field of–
(A) Heavy Machinery
(B) Oil exploration and processing
(C) Atomic Energy
(D) Information Technology
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

16. Who amongst the following has been appointed as the new coach of the Indian Cricket team for a period of two years ?
(A) Stuart Law
(B) Allan Border
(C) Gary Kirsten
(D) Duncan Fletcher
(E) Allan Donald
Ans : (D)

17. Why was Kanishtha Dhankhars name in news recently ?
(A) She was crowned Femina Miss India-2011
(B) She was adjudged Best Actress-2010 by Film Fare
(C) She is the new Capital of India's woman cricket team
(D) She is the new Dy. Minister Textile in place of Dayanidhi Maran
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

18. K. Balachander, who was awarded prestigious Dada Saheb Phalke Award-2010, is basically a/an–
(A) Actor
(B) Director
(C) Photographer
(D) Music Director
(E) Choreographer
Ans : (D)

19. Banks and other financial institutions in India are required to maintain a certain amount of liquid assets like cash, precious metals and other short term securities as a reserve all the time. In Banking World this is known as–
(A) CRR
(B) Fixed Asset
(C) SLR
(D) PLR
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following Space agencies recently launched three satellites and placed them into Polar Sun Synchronous Orbit successfully?
(A) NASA
(B) ROSCOSMOS
(C) cnsa
(D) ISRO
(E) JAXA
Ans : (D)

21. As per the decision taken by the Govt. of India recently, "Bamboo is a liberated item now". What does it really mean ?
1. Bamboo, henceforth will be treated as a minor forest produce only.
2. Now villagers are free to sell bamboo in their community forest areas.
3. Gramsabha is given right to issue transport passes to legally transport the produce.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

22. Union Cabinet recently passed a Rs. 7000 crore project to clean-up which of the following rivers in India?
(A) Narmada
(B) Ravi
(C) Ganga
(D) Chambal
(E) Krishna
Ans : (C)

23. As per estimates of the Planning Commission of India the target growth rate of 12th Five Year Plan is set to–
(A) 7 to 8%
(B) 8.0% to 8.5%
(C) 9% to 9.5%
(D) 10 to 10.5%
(E) 11%
Ans : (E)

24. Goodluck Jonathan was recently reelected the President of–
(A) South Africa
(B) Nigeria
(C) Kosovo
(D) Haiti
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

25. Which of the following schemes is not launched by the Ministry of Rural Development, Govt. of India ?
(A) National Old Age Pension Scheme
(B) National Maternity Benefit Scheme
(C) National Family Benefit Scheme
(D) Mid-Day Meal Scheme
(E) All are launched by Ministry of Rural Development
Ans : (D)

26. Where you are likely to find an embedded operating system ?
(A) on a desktop operating system
(B) on a networked PC
(C) on a network server
(D) on a PDA
(E) on a mainframe
Ans : (D)

27. An online discussion group that allows direct 'live' communication is known as–
(A) Webcrawler
(B) chat group
(C) regional service provider
(D) hyperlink
(E) e-mail
Ans : (B)

28. Which of the following is a program that uses a variety of different approaches to identify and eliminate spam ?
(A) Directory search
(B) Anti-spam program
(C) Web server
(D) Web storefront creation package
(E) Virus
Ans : (B)

29. Connection or link to other documents or Web Pages that contain related information is called–
(A) dial-up
(B) electronic commerce
(C) hyperlink
(D) e-cash
(E) domain name
Ans : (C)

30. Which of the following is a programming language for creating special programs like
applets ?
(A) Java
(B) cable
(C) domain name
(D) Net
(E) COBOL
Ans : (A)

31. The system unit–
(A) coordinates input and output devices
(B) is the container that houses electronic components
(C) is a combination of hardware and software
(D) controls and manipulates data
(E) does the arithmetic operations
Ans : (C)

32. System software–
(A) allows the user to diagnose and troubleshoot the device
(B) is a programming language
(C) is part of a productivity suit
(D) is an optional form of software
(E) helps the computer manage internal resources
Ans : (E)

33. Computer and communication technologies, such as communication links to the Internet that provide help and understanding to the end user is known as–
(A) presentation file
(B) information technology
(C) program
(D) worksheet file
(E) FTP
Ans : (B)

34. Which of the following is contained on chips connected to the system board and is a holding area for data instructions and information ? (processed data waiting to be output to secondary storage)
(A) program
(B) mouse
(C) Internet
(D) memory
(E) modem
Ans : (D)

35. Microsoft's Messenger allows users to–
(A) to bypass a browser to surf the Web
(B) create a blog
(C) communicate via direct live communication
(D) identify and eliminate spam
(E) make graphic presentations
Ans : (C)

36. Portable computer, also known as laptop computer, weighing between 4 and 10 pounds is called–
(A) general-purpose application
(B) Internet
(C) scanner
(D) printer
(E) notebook computer
Ans : (E)

37. The main circuit-board of the system unit is the–
(A) computer program
(B) control unit
(C) motherboard
(D) RAM
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

38. Which of the following is billionth of a second ?
(A) Gigabyte
(B) Terabyte
(C) Nanosecond
(D) Microsecond
(E) Terasecond
Ans : (C)

39. Online Marketing is the function of which of the following ?
(A) Purchase Section
(B) Production Department
(C) I.T. Department
(D) Designs Section
(E) A collective function of all staff
Ans : (E)

40. Customisation is useful for–
(A) Designing customer specific products
(B) Call centers
(C) Publicity
(D) Motivating the staff
(E) Cold calls
Ans : (A)

41. The key challenge to market driven strategy is–
(A) Selling maximum products
(B) Employing maximum DSAs
(C) Delivering superior value to customers
(D) Being rigid to changes
(E) Adopting short term vision
Ans : (C)

42. Effective Selling skills depends on–
(A) Size of the sales teams
(B) Age of the sales teams
(C) Peerstrength
(D) Knowledge level of the sales team
(E) Educational level of the sales team
Ans : (C)

43. Generation of sales leads can be improved by–
(A) Being very talkative
(B) Increasing personal and professional contacts
(C) Being passive
(D) Engaging Recovery Agents
(E) Product designs
Ans : (B)

44. A Market Plan is–
(A) Performance Appraisal of marketing staff
(B) Company Prospectus
(C) Documented marketing strategies
(D) Business targets
(E) Call centre
Ans : (C)

45. Marketing channels mean–
(A) Delivery objects
(B) Sales targets
(C) Delivery outlets
(D) Delivery boys
(E) Sales teams
Ans : (C)

46. Social Marketing means–
(A) Share market prices
(B) Marketing by the entire society
(C) Internet Marketing
(D) Marketing for a social cause
(E) Society bye-laws
Ans : (D)

47. Service Marketing is the same as–
(A) Internet Marketing
(8) Telemarketing
(C) Internal Marketing
(D) Relationship Marketing
(E) Transaction Marketing
Ans : (D)

48. Market driven strategies include–
(A) Identifying problems
(8) Planning marketing tactics of peers
(C) Positioning the Organisation and its brands in the market place
(D) Internal marketing
(E) Selling old products
Ans : (C)

49. Innovation in marketing is same as–
(A) Motivation
(8) Perspiration
(C) Aspiration
(D) Creativity
(E) Teamwork
Ans : (D)

50. Personal Loans can be canvassed among–
(A) Salaried persons
(8) Pensioners
(C) Foreign Nationals
(D) NRI customers
(E) Non-customers
Ans : (A)

GENERAL AWARENESS MODEL QUESTIONS

1. 1. According to the new draft of guidelines released by RBI for licensing of new bank in the private sector, what will be the minimum capital requirement for a wholly owned, non-operative holding company be allowed to open a bank in India?
     a) Rs 300 crore
     b) Rs 500 crore
     c) Rs 700 crore
     d) Rs 400 crore
     e) None of the above
2.  2.The Mid-Quarter review of Monetary Policy of RBI took place on September 16, 2011. Which of the following is true about the same?
     A) Benchmark Repo Rate hiked by 25 basis points (bps) to 8.25%
     B) The modal base rate of banks rose to 10.75 % in August from 10.25 % in July.
     C) Liquidity has remained in deficit, consistent with the stance of monetary policy.
      a)  Only (A)      b) Only (B)      c) Only(C)    d) Both (A) & (B)     e) All (A), (B) &(C)
3.  3.Recently, India took over the Presidency of which of the following Intergovernmental Group of countries after a gap of 28 years?
     a) G-8
     b) G-20
     c) G-24
     d) D-8
     e) None of these
4. 4.  What is the name of China’s maiden unmanned space lab which successfully putr into orbit by the Chinese space agency CNSA in September 2011?
     a) Shenzhou
     b) Chengdu
     c) Dong Feng
     d) Tiangong
     e) None of the above
5.  5.In the wake of the 57 rail accidents witnessed this year, the Railway Ministry has set up a high-level safety review committee to look into the signalling systems, rolling stock, fixed structures and other safety measures in the rail research establishments. Who is appointed as head of this committee?
     a) Sanjay Dhande
     b) Anil Kakodkar
     c) E. Sreedharan
     d) N. Vedachalam
     e) G.P. Srivastava
6.  6. Which of the following countries has granted its women citizens the right to vote and contest in elections for the first time in history?
     a) Iran
     b) Tajikistan
     c) Afghanistan
     d) Uzbekistan
     e) Saudi Arabia
7. 7. Which of the following Indian States recently announced the launch of  project named ‘Project Panther’ which envisaged on the lines of ‘Project Tiger’ in its protected wildlife sanctuaries?
     a) Rajasthan
     b) Uttar Pradesh
     c) Andhra Pradesh
     d) Madhya Pradesh
     e) Maharashtra
8. 8.  Dr Anil Kakodkar Committee constituted by the government in October 2009 to suggest measures for making all the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) world class institutions had submitted its report to Union HRD Minister Kapil Sibal in May 2011.Which of the following recommendations is NOT true in this context?
     A) The tuition fees of IITs should be between Rs 3-3.5 lakh per year per student.
     B) IITs should raise the money to run undergraduate courses entirely through tuition fees
          and not depend on grants.
     C) Scale up PhD students from less than 1000 PhD graduates per year today to 10,000
          PhD graduates by 2020-25 from about 20 IITs.
     a) Only (A)     b) only (B)        c) Only (C)       d) Both (B) & (C)        e) Both (A) & (B)
9.  9. Chandrasekhar Kambar has recently been chosen for 46th Jnanpith Award for the year 2010. He is renowned
     a) Hindi author
     b) Malayalam poet
     c) Kannada author
     d) Bengali writer
     e) None of the above
10. 10. Bhuwan Chandra Khanduri became the new Chief Minister of which of following Indian States?
      a) Uttranchal   
      b) Jharkhand
      c) Karanatka
      d) Uttarakhand
      e) Maharashtra
11.11. Supreme Court, the apex court in India at present has a sanctioned strength of _______ judges including the Chief Justice of India.   
      a) 26
      b) 27
      c) 29
      d) 30
      e) 31
12. 12. The finals of the first Asian Men’s Hockey Champions Trophy played in September 2011 in Ordos, China was won by
      a) China
      b) India
      c) Pakistan
      d) Malaysia
      d) South Korea
13.13. Why was Justice Fakkir Mohamed Ibrahim Kalifulla recently in news?
      a) He has taken over as the Chief Justice of the J&K High Court
      b) He has taken over as the Chief Justice of the Jharkhand High Court.
      c) He has become a judge in the Supreme Court of India
      d) He is the new chairperson of Gujarat State Human Rights Commission
      e) None of the above
14. 14. ‘Google+’, a new social networking service launched by Google Inc. on June 28, 2011 is a combination of
      a) Google News and Google Orkut
      b) Google Orkut and Google GMail
      c) Google Profiles and Google Buzz
      d) Google Wallet and Google Buzz
      d) None of the above
15. 15. Which of the following is NOT of the same category?
      a) IDEA
      b) AIRTEL
      c) TATA
      d) BSNL
     e) AIRCEL

16. 16. What is the full form of IMEI, a unique serial number which identifies the mobile1 handset?
      a) Internet Mobile Equipment Identity
      b) International Manufacturing Entity Identity
      c) International Mobile Equipment Identity
      d) International Mobile Encrypted Identity
      e) None of the above
17. 17. The 2004 Nobel Peace Prize winner, Wangari Maathai who died on Sept. 25, 2011, belonged to
      a) Japan   
      b) Kenya
      c) South Korea
      d) North Korea
      e) Malaysia
18. 18. Loan for fish rearing is covered under Priority Sector as _________ advances.
      a) Direct Agriculture
      b) Indirect Agriculture
      c) Self Employment Scheme
      d) Allied to Indirect Agriculture
      e) None of these
19. 19. Which one of the following is NOT an example of indirect tax?
      a) Sale tax
      b) Excise duty
      c) Custom duty
      d) Service tax
      e) Expenditure tax
20.20. Small service providers whose turnover is less than ________per annum are exempt from service tax in India.
      a) Rs 4 lakhs
      b) Rs 6 lakhs
      c) Rs 8 lakhs
      d) Rs 10 lakhs
      e) None of these

SBI P.O. EXAM PREVIOUS REASONING SOLVED PAPER

Directions(Q. 1-5): In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘Strong” arguments and ‘weak’ arguments insofar as they relate to the question. ‘strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question:

Instructions: Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument. Give answer 1, if only argument I is ‘strong’; give answer 2, if only argument II is ‘strong’; give answer 3, if either I or II is ‘strong’; give answer 4, if neither I or II is ‘strong’; and give answer 5, if both I and II are ‘strong’.

1. Statement: Should post-poll alliances be allowed?

Arguments: I. Yes, it is the only way out of a hung parliament.

II. No, it is a fraud upon voters who have voted them as opposed groups.

2. Statement: Should the government invest in infrastructure?

Arguments: I. Yes, it is the backbone of the economy.

II. No, it would be assuming too big a role.

3. Statement: Should bomb disposal squads be given co-operation by the public?

Arguments: I. Yes, they are necessary to rescue peoples lives.

II. No, they are a nuisance to day-today life.

4. Statement: Should there be re-polling at stations where there has been booth-capturing?

Arguments: I. Yes, what else do you think?

II. No, it is a waste of resources.

5. Statement: Should the knowledge of computers be made essential for employment in offices?

Arguments: I. Yes, computers are state-of-the art devices.

II. No, works in office are yet to get fully computerized.

Directions (Q. 6-10.): an arrangement machine, when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement:

Input: Delhi police moved the high court in September.

Step I : court Delhi Police moved the high in September

Step II : court Delhi high Police moved the in September

Step III : court Delhi high in Police moved the September

Step IV : court Delhi high in moved Police the September

Step V : court Delhi high In moved Police September the

6. Input: The supreme Court ordered banning of professional donors.

What will be the 3rd step?

1. banning the Supreme Court ordered or professional donors.

2. banning Court donors the Supreme ordered of professional

3. banning donors the Supreme Court ordered of professional

4. banning Court the Supreme ordered of professional donors

5. None of these

7. Which will be the last step for the following input?

Input:Till now the country does not have policy

1. Step III. 2. Step IV. 3. Step V. 4. Step VI. 5. None of these.

8.Input: he will help to bring the forces together.

For the above input which step will be the following?

Bring forces he help will to the together

1.Step II. 2. Step III. 3. Step IV. 4. Step V. 5. None of these.

9.Below are given four inputs 1, 2, 3 and 4. Which of them will b arranged the fastest? If more than one input can be arranged in the same number of steps, your answer will be 5.

1. Fractionisation is the best method to stop wastage.

2. The assembly polls have been swept this year

3. Voluntary blood donation will have to be encouraged.

4. By the time operation is performed.

10. What will be the fourth step of the following input?

Input:

1. a he is no more communist now

2. a communist he is no more now

3. a communist he is more no now

4. There will be no fourth step.

5. None of these

Qs. 11-17. These questions are based on the following letter/number/symbol arrangement.

Study it carefully and answer the questions.

H T 6 # E 7 $ K I L % 3 P @ 2 A J ↑ R U 4 �� V D

11. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a vowel?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

12. Which element is fifth to the right of

thirteenth from the right end?

(1) F (2) ↑ (3) 1 (4) K (5) None of these

13. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?

T#6 7K$ L3% ?

(1) @2A (2) A@2 (3) P2@ (4) 2P@ (5) None of these

14. Which element is third to the left of tenth from the left end?

(1) K (2) 3 (3) P (4) $ (5) None of these

15. How many such letters are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol but not immediately followed by a number?

(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1) KL$ (2) P23 (3) 2J@ (4) L3I (5) 4D��

17. If all the numbers are removed from the given arrangement which element will be ninth from the left end?

(1) % (2) L (3) P (4) I (5) None of these

Qs. 18-25. In each question below are four statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the four given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the four

statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give

answer:

(1) if only conclusion I follows.

(2) if only conclusion II follows.

(3) if either I or II follows.

(4) if neither I nor II follows.

(5) if both I and II follow.

Statements:

18. Some schools are Colleges.

Some Colleges are Universities.

All Universities are Institutes.

All Institutes are Classes.

Conclusions:

I. Some Colleges are Classes.

II. All Universities are Classes.

Statements:

19. Some umbrellas are raincoats.

All raincoats are shirts.

No shirt is a blazer.

Some blazers are suits.

Conclusions:

I. Some shirts are umbrellas.

II. Some suits are raincoats.

Statements:

20. Some computers are boards.

Some boards are chalks.

All chalks are bulbs.

No bulb is tube-light.

Conclusions:

I. Some bulbs are computers.

II. No chalk is a tubelight.

Statements:

21. All doors are floors.

Some floors are tiles.

All ties are paints.

Some paints are stones.

Conclusions:

I. Some floors are paints.

II. Some doors are tiles.

Statements:

22. Some leaves are petals.

Some petals are flowers.

All flowers are fruits.

Some fruits are nuts.

Conclusions:

I. Some nuts are flowers.

II. No nut is flower.

Statements:

23. All pictures are paintings.

All paintings are photographs.

Some photographs are designs.

Some designs are movies.

Conclusions:

I. Some paintings are designs.

II. Some photographs are movies.

Statements:

24. Some tablets are capsules.

All capsules are syrups.

Some syrups are medicines.

All medicines are powders.

Conclusions:

I. Some syrups are powders.

II. Some syrups are tablets.

Statements:

25. Some rooms are flats.

All flats are buildings.

Some buildings are bungalows.

All bungalows are apartments.

Conclusions:

I. Some flats are bungalows.

II. Some apartments are buildings.

Qs. 26-30. Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

Ashwini, Priya, Sudha, Rani, Meeta, Geeta and Mukta are sitting around a circle facing the centre. Ashwini is third to the left of Mukta and to the immediate right of Rani. Priya is second to the left of Geeta who is not an immediate neighbour of Meeta.

26. Who is the immediate right of Priya?

(1) Meeta (2) Sudha (3) Mukta (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

27. Who is second to the left of Rani?

(1) Ashwini (2) Meeta (3) Priya (4) Sudha (5) None of these

28. Which of the following pairs of persons has the first person sitting to the immediate left of second person?

(1) Rani-Meeta (2) Ashwini-Geeta (3) Sudha-Priya (4) Geeta-Sudha (5) None of these

29. Which of the following groups has the first person sitting between the other two?

(1) Meeta-Ashwini-Geeta

(2) Sudha-Rani-Geeta

(3) Mukta-Priya-Rani

(4) Mukta-Priya-Sudha

(5) None of these

30. Which of the following is the correct position of Rani with respect of Mukta?

(I) Third to the right

(II) Third to the left

(III) Fourth to the left

(IV) Fourth to the right

(1) (I) only (2) (II) only (3) Both (I) and (II) (4) Both (II) and (IV)

(5) Both (I) and (III)

Qs. 31-37. In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of digits and symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). The letters are to be coded by the digits/symbols as per the scheme and conditions given below. Serial number of the combination that correctly represents the letter group is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct your answer is (5) i.e. ‘None of these’ .

LETTERS : T L F A R N I G H K E M D U

Digit/Symbol Code : 3 9 % $ 2 4 ★ 6 1 5 # @ 7 8

Conditions:

(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant both are to be coded as the code for vowel.

(ii) If the first as well as the last letter is a consonant both are to be coded as ©.

(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel their codes are to be swapped.

31. GTAFKU

(1) 63$%58 (2) 63$%56 (3) 83$%58 (4) 83$%56

(5) None of these

32. EHMDRA

(1) #1@72$ (2) SL@72# (3) #1@72# (4) $1@72$

(5) None of these

33. ITDELM

(1) ★37#9@ (2) @37#9@ (3) ★37#9★ (4) @37#9★

(5) None of these

34. FHKERD

(1) %15#27 (2) ©15#2© (3) %15#2% (4) 715#2%

(5) None of these

35. AHERFU

(1)$1#2%$ (2)81#2%8 (3) 81#2%$ (4) $1%2#8

(5) None of these

36. NMTARI

(1) 4@3$2★ (2) ★@3$24 (3) ★@3$2★ (4) ©@3$2©

(5) None of these

37. HTKILF

(1) 135★9% (2) %35★9% (3) ©35★9© (4) 135★91

(5) None of these

Qs. 38-42. The symbols @, #, $, % and © are used with different meanings as follows:

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’.

‘A # B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater

than B’.

‘A % B’ means ‘A is greater than B’.

‘A © B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’.

In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give Answer:

(1) if only Conclusion I is true.

(2) if only Conclusion II is true.

(3) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true.

(4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.

(5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.

Statements:

38. F # H, H % K, K $ R, R © M

Conclusions:

I. F % R

II. F # M

Statements:

39. L @ D, D © P, P # V, V % G

Conclusions:

I. P % L

II. G @ P

Statements:

40. E % W, W © Q, Q $ T T @ H

Conclusions:

I. H # W

II. H # E

Statements:

41. J © T, T @ H, H % I, I $ L

Conclusions:

I. L © H

II. J © I

Statements:

42. R @ Q, Q % P, P © V, V # M

Conclusions:

I. R @ P

II. R # P

Qs. 43-45. Study the following information carefully and answer these questions:

‘P × Q’ means ‘P is wife of Q’.

‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.

‘P + Q’ means ‘P is son of Q’.

‘P – Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.

43. In H + I ÷ L, how is L related to H?

(1) Brother (2) Sister (3) Cousin (4) Brother or Sister

(5) None of these

44. Which of the following represents ‘S is mother of T’?

(1) S × M ÷ H – T (2) S × M + H – T (3) M × S ÷ H – T

(4) M × S ÷ H + T (5) None of these

45. In J – F + R × B, how is R related to J?

(1) Father (2) Mother (3) Paternal Aunt (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

Qs. 46-50. Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F & G are members of a sports club and have liking for different games viz Carrom, Table Tennis, Badminton, Bridge, Hockey, Football and Lawn Tennis but not necessary in the same order. Each one of them has a liking for different musical instrument viz.,Sitar, Guitar, Harmonium, Flute, Tabla, Banjo and Santoor not necessarily in the same order.

B likes Carrom and Banjo. E likes to play Bridge but not Harmonium or Tabla. The one which plays Hockey plays Sitar. F plays Guitar but not Table Tennis or Lawn Tennis. A plays Badminton and Flute. The one who plays Lawn Tennis does not play Tabla. C plays Harmonium and G plays Hockey.

46. Who plays Santoor?

(1) D (2) A (3) E (4) D or E (5) None of these

47. D plays which game?

(1) Table Tennis (2) Lawn Tennis (3) Foot Ball (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

48. Which of the following combinations of gameperson-musical instrument is definitely correct?

(1) Badminton—B—Flute

(2) Table Tennis—E—Santoor

(3) Lawn Tennis—D—Tabla

(4) Table Tennis—C—Tabla

(5) None of these

49. Who plays Football?

(1) C (2) D (3) G (4) F (5) None of these

50. Who plays Table Tennis?

(1) C (2) F (3) D (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Qs. 51-60. Following are the criteria for selection of officers in an organisation.

The candidate must:

(i) have passed HSC examination in first class with at least 60% marks.

(ii) have passed graduation degree in any discipline with at least 55% marks.

(iii) have completed a certificate/diploma/degree course in Computer Science.

(iv) be not less than 21 years and not more than 30 years of age as on 1.7.2008.

If a candidate satisfies all the above-mentioned criteria except:

(a) at (ii) above but is a post-graduate, case may be referred to the Executive Director (ED).

(b) at (iii) above but has studied Computer Science as one of subjects of curriculum, case may be referred to the Vice President (VP).

In each of the questions below, information of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following five decisions based on the information provided and the criteria and conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on

1.7.2008. You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows:

Mark answer

(1) if the case is to be referred to Executive Head.

(2) if the case is to be referred to Vice President.

(3) if the candidate is to be selected.

(4) if the information is inadequate to take a decision.

(5) if the candidate is not to be selected.

51. Ashutosh, is a Commerce graduate passed in first class with 67% marks. He had secured 73% marks in HSC. He has studied Computer Science as one of the subjects at HSC. His date of birth is 22.9.1982.

52. Rajni has passed BMS degree examination in second class with 58% marks and HSC in first class with 65% marks. She has completed a diploma in Computer Science. She has completed 25 years of age in November 2007.

53. Raj Grover has passed HSC exam in first class with 89% marks. Thereafter he did a 6 months certificate course in Computer Science and presently is pursuing final year of engineering degree examination. His date of birth is 28.12.1980.

54. Shamika Gupta is a Science graduate passed in 2006 with 47% at the age of 22 years. She had scored 64% marks in HSC. She has also passed M.Sc. with 58% marks. She has done a certificate course in computers.

55. Jasmine is a postgraduate in Computer Science passed in first class with 62% marks. She had scored 81% marks in HSC. Her date of birth is 17.6.1979.

56. Shyamala is a B.A. passed in first class with 63% marks. She had passed HSC examination in first class with 69% marks. She has also completed a certificate course in Computer Science with a ‘A’ grade. Her date of birth is 23.9.1984.

57. Anubhav Gokhale, is a B.Sc. with Computer Science passed in second class with 58% marks. He had passed HSC in first class with 76% marks. He has completed 25 years of age in December 2007.

58. Manish Chaudhary passed HSC examination in first class with 83% marks and B.Com. in second class with 57% marks. He has completed a computer certificate course very recently. His date of birth is 26.4.1982.

59. Harish Vora passed HSC examination in 2003 with 85% marks and B.Sc. Degree examination in 2006 with 69% marks. He has studied Computer Science as one of the subjects at B.Sc. His date of birth is 17.9.84.

60. Vandana Bhave is B.Com graduate passed in second class with 56% marks. She had passed HSC in second class with 59% marks. She has also completed a Computer diploma with 56% marks. Her date of birth is 11.5.1982.

ANSWERS:

1. (5) 2. (1) 3. (1). 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (5) 8. (2) 9. (5) 10. (4)  11. (2) 12. (5) 13. (5) 14. (4) 15. (4) 16. (5) 17. (1) 18. (5) 19.(1) 20. (2) 21.(1) 22. (3) 23.(4) 24. (5) 25. (2) 26. (3) 27. (5) 28. (4) 29. (2) 30. (5) 31. (4) 32. (1) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (5) 36. (2) 37. (3) 38. (1) 39. (5) 40. (4)  41. (4) 42. (3) 43. (4) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (5) 49. (4) 50. (3)  51. (2) 52. (3) 53. (1) 54. (4) 55. (4) 56. (3) 57. (2) 58. (3) 59. (2) 60. (5)

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS:

1. 5; I is strong because a hung parliament must be got rid of for the benefit of the nation. II is also strong because elections carry the mandate of voters. If they are cheated, the very purpose of elections is lost.

2. 1; I is strong because economy can flourish only when its backbone is strong. II is weak because it does not cite any substantial reason. What does “too big a role mean”?

3. 1; I is strong because the security of people’s lives should be given utmost priority. II is not strong because something is being dismissed summarily as “nuisance” without going into its reasons.

4. 4; I is not strong because it is a stupid argument. In fact. No reason is being given at all. II is not strong because “wastage of resources” cannot be arrived at absolutely; it must be seen in a context.

5. 2; I is not strong: the reason for the desirability of something is not its ‘newness”, but its use. II is strong because it tells us that such a compulsion is not going to benefit us in any big way.

6-10: the logic of the machine is very simple. Words are arranged in the alphabetical order, one at a time.

6. 2 ;

7.5; See how the words will get arranged: Step I – country; Step II – does; Step III – have; Step IV – not; Step V – now; Step Vi – policy; Step VII – the. This would leave till automatically arranged. So Step VII would be the last step.

8.2; Input: he will help to bring the forces together

Step I : bring he will help to the forces together

Step II: bring forces he will help to the together

Step III: bring forces he help will to the together

9. 5; For (1): step I – best; II – method; III – stop. Three steps.

For (2): Step I – assembly; II – been; III – have; IV – polls. More than three steps. So leave it.

For (3)Step I – be; II blood: III – donation; IV – have. Again, more than three. So no use going further.

For (4): Step I – is; II – operation ; III – performed. And the sentence gets arranged.

Since both I and 4 are arranged in only three steps, we can’t determine the input exactly.

43. (4) H is son of I and I is father of L.

44. (1) S is wife of M; M is father of H and H is sister of Q.

45. (2) J is wife of F; F is son of R and R is wife of B.

Q 46.-50.

Members A B C D E F G

Game : Badm. Carrom Lawn T T.T. Bridge Foot B. Hockey

Instrument: Flute Banjo Harmo Tabla Santoor Guitar Sitar

46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (5) 49. (4) 50. (3)