Custom Search

Saturday, November 12, 2011

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE MCQs

1. A passive threat to computer security is—
(1) Malicious Intent
(2) Sabotage
(3) Accident Errors
(4) Espionage Agents
(5) None of these

2. The Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) specification—
(1) is a notice, issued and verified by a certificate authority, that guarantees a user      or Web site is legitimate
(2) provides private-key encryption of all data that passes between a client and a      server
(3) allows users to choose an encryption scheme for the data that passes between      a client and a server
(4) uses a public-key encryption to secure credit-card transaction systems
(5) None of these

3. ……………allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and its services such as the Web and e-mail—
(1) TCP/IP
(2) Ethernet
(3)WAP
(4) Token ring
(5) None of these

4. 'DOS' floppy disk does not have—
(1) A Boot Record
(2) A File Allocation Table
(3) A Root Directory
(4) Virtual Memory
(5) BIOS

5. 'MICR' technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to—
(1) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
(2) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition
(3) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition
(4) Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition
(5) None of these

6. All the information collected during database development is stored in a—
(1) repository
(2) data warehouse
(3) RAD
(4) CASE
(5) None of these

7. The……………….component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database.
(1) data extraction
(2) end-user query tool
(3) end-user presentation tool
(4) data store
(5) None of these

8. A (n)…………….allows network users to share a single copy of software, which resides on the network server.
(1) single-user license agreement
(2) network site license
(3) end-user license agreement
(4) business software license
(5) None of these

9. A polymorphic virus—
(1) modifies its program code each time it attaches itself to another program or file
(2) is a malicious-logic program that copies itself repeatedly in memory or on a disk drive until no memory or disk space remains
(3) a malicious-logic program that hides within or looks like a legitimate program
(4) infects a program file, but still reports the size and creation date of the original, uninfected program
(5) None of these

10. Microwave transmission is used in environments where installing physical transmission media is—
(1) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is unavailable
(2) easy or promising and where line-of-sight transmission is unavailable
(3) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is available
(4) easy or promising and where line-of-sight transmission is available
(5) None of these

11. Which is NOT a good Web security strategy?
(1) Restrict access to the Web server; keep a minimum number of ports open
(2) Limit the users who can load software, edit or add files.
(3) Add demo programs, so users can test system without accessing production data.
(4) Remove unnecessary compilers and interpreters.
(5) None of these

12. The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone is—
(1) Biometrics
(2) Compression
(3) Encryption
(4) Ergonomics
(5) None of these

13. The word FIP stands for—
(1) File Translate Protocol
(2) File Transit Protocol
(3) File Typing Protocol
(4) File Transfer Protocol
(5) None of these

14. Voice mail—
(1) is the exchange of text messages and computer files transmitted via a communications network such as a local area network or the Internet
(2) permits users to converse in real time with each other via the computer while connected to the Internet
(3) functions much like an answering machine, allowing callers to leave a voice message for the called party
(4) involves using video and computer technology to conduct a meeting between participants at geographically separate locations
(5) None of these

15. A communication processor that connects dissimilar networks by providing the translation from one set of protocol to another is—
(1) Bridge
(2) Gateway
(3) Router
(4) Modem
(5) All of these

16. Which of the following is a general-purpose programming language, designed by Sun Microsystems, and well suited for use on the Web?
(1) VB Script
(2) Java Script
(3) CSS
(4) Java
(5) None of these

17. This.............tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and provides access to data.
(1) Client
(2) Applications/Web server
(3) Enterprise server
(4) DBA
(5) None of these

18. RSA is—
(1) Symmetric Cryptosystem
(2) Asymmetric Cryptosystem
(3) Block Cypher
(4) Digital Signature
(5) None of these

19. A DVD-RAM is similar to a………………except it has storage capacities up to 5.2 GB.
(1) CD-R
(2) floppy disk
(3) CD-RW
(4) hard disk
(5) None of these

20. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most important consideration?
(1) The type of drivers that come with the mouse
(2) The length of the mouse cord
(3) The type of connector the mouse is equipped with
(4) The number of buttons the mouse has
(5) None of these

21. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device?
(1) Through a power cable
(2) From an external power supply
(3) Directly from the computer's power supply
(4) Through the USB cable
(5) None of these

22. All of the following are basic principles of net works,except—
(1) each computer must have a network card
(2) there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices
(3) there must be at least one connecting device
(4) each computer must have software that supports the movement of information
(5) None of these

23. The………….data mining technique derives rules from real-world case examples.
(1) Rule discover
(2) Signal processing
(3) Neural nets
(4) Case-based reasoning
(5) None of these

24. …………….are used to identify a user who returns to a Website.
(1) Cookies
(2) Plug-ins
(3) Scripts
(4) ASPs
(5) None of these

25. Which one of the following objects is passed to a Java Bean when one of its properties is set via a JSP action?
(1) Servlet Request
(2) Http Servlet Request
(3) Servlet Response
(4) Http Servlet Response
(5) None of these

26. _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ translates and executes program at run time line by line
1) Compiler
2) Interpreter
3) Linker
4) Loader
5) None

27. _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ is an OOP principle
1) Structured programming
2) Procedural programming
3) Inheritance
4) Linking
5) None

28. COBOL is widely used in _ _ _ _ _ _ _ applications
1) Commercial
2) Scientific
3) Space
4) Mathematical
5) None

29. RAM stands for
1) Random origin money
2) Random only memory
3) Read only memory
4) Random access memory
5) None

30. 1 Byte = ?
1) 8 bits
2) 4 bits
3) 2 bits
4) 9 bits
5) None

31. SMPS stands for
1) Switched mode power supply
2) Start mode power supply
3) Store mode power supply
4) Single mode power supply
5) None

32. The device used to carry digital data on analog lines is called as
1) Modem
2) Multiplexer
3) Modulator
4) Demodulator
5) None

33. VDU is also called
1) Screen
2) Monitor
3) Both 1 & 2
4) printer
5) None

34. BIOS stands for
1) Basic Input Output system
2) Binary Input output system
3) Basic Input Off system
4) all the above
5) None

35. Father of ‘C’ programming language
1) Dennis Ritchie
2) Prof Jhon Kemeny
3) Thomas Kurtz
4) Bill Gates
5) None

36. The 16 bit Microprocessor means that it has
1) 16 address lines
2) 16 Buses
3) 16 Data lines
4) 16 routes
5) None

37. Data going into the computer is called
1) Output
2) algorithm
3) Input
4) Calculations
5) flow chart

38. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network?
1) LAN
2) DSL
3) RAM
4) USB
5) CPU

39. Microsoft Office is
1) Shareware
2)Public domain software
3) Open-sourse software
4) A vertical market application
5) An application suite

40. How many options does a BINARY choice offer
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) it depends on the amount of memory on the computer
5) It depends on the speed of the computer’s processor

41. A collection of program that controls how your computer system runs and processes information is called
1) Operating System
2) Computer
3) Office
4) Compiler
5) Interpreter

42. Computer connected to a LAN (Local Area Network) can
1) run faster
2) go on line
3) share information and /or share peripheral equipment
4) E-mail
5) None

43. Information travels between components on the mother board through
1) Flash memory
2) CMOS
3) Bays
4) Buses
5) Peripherals

44. How are data organized in a spreadsheet?
1) Lines & spaces
2) Layers & Planes
3) Height & Width
4) Rows & Columns
5) None

45. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the
1) mouse
2) logo
3) hand
4) palm
5) cursor


ANSWERS :


1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (3) 29. (1) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (1) 35. (3) 36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (4) 39. (1) 40. (5) 41. (4) 42. (1) 43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (5)

Friday, November 11, 2011

Dena Bank Clerk Exam., 2011


English Language 
(Held on 6-3-2011) 


Directions– (Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words / expressions are given in bold in the passage to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

"My God, it speaks" uttered the Emperor of Brazil and the receiver of the Telephone slipped from his hand and banged aground. At the other end Alexander Graham Bell was still on line.

This incident goes back to 1876 when at an exhibition in Philadelphia (USA), Alexander Graham Bell was giving a demonstration of his new invention. This strange instrument known as Telephone was to revolutionize life in the years to come.

Bell was born at Edinborough, Scotland. He was a teacher and, was dedicated to the noble cause of teaching the deaf and the dumb. Due to a severe illness, Bell was sent to Canada in 1870, where too he got engaged in helping the dumb-deaf to hear and speak. Thereafter, he shifted to the USA but continued with his work by opening a school for deaf and dumb.

Bell was fond of scientific inventions and was ever engaged in making some machines in his spare time. While at Boston, he tried to communicate through metal wire. His companion in this work was Watson. One day while experimenting with his instrument, Bell spoke to Watson standing at a distance. Watson was taken by a pleasant surprise as he had heard Bell clearly through his instrument. The instrument was a success and Bell patented it.

Graham Bell had some sterling qualities of head and heart. Apart from being an artist, he was a kind human being, ready to help the needy. He established an institution for the deaf and dumb children. He died in 1922 in Canada. The entire Northern America paid him a tribute by hanging up their telephones for awhile during his funeral.

1. Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage as a quality of Graham Bell ?
(A) Lover of art
(B) Kind natured person
(C) Cooperative individual
(D) Curiosity
(E) All these are mentioned
Ans : (D)

2. The words uttered by the Emperor of Brazil suggest that he was extremely–
(A) angry
(B) insulted
(C) surprised
(D) agitated
(E) sad
Ans : (C)

3. Which of the following made Bell to invent telephone ?
(A) His activity of teaching
(B) His service to the deaf and dumb
(C) His keen interest in scientific inventions
(D) Encouragement received from Watson
(E) The request from Emperor of Brazil
Ans : (C)


4. What according to the passage was the contribution of invention of telephone ?
(A) Interaction between two persons at some distance was possible
(B) Rich people were able to communicate with others
(C) Graham Bell could converse with Watson regarding invention through telephone
(D) It revolutionized human life
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. Graham Bell made the telephone call of his invention to the Emperor from the city of –
(A) Edinborough
(B) Philadelphia
(C) Brazil
(D) Boston
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. The teaching activity undertaken by Bell was considered 'noble' particularly because–
(A) he was teaching the physically under-privileged persons
(B) there was nobody else in the field of education
(C) he was not accepting any salary for that job
(D) he was a very famous scientist of his times
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. The North Americans paid their last respects to Bell by–
(A) attending his funeral
(B) suspending telephone lines for some time during his funeral
(C) establishing an institution for the deaf and dumb children
(D) showing their readiness to help the poor and needy
(E) patenting his invention
Ans : (B)

8. Bell had gone to Canada in 1870 for–
(A) treating a patient who was seriously ill
(B) helping the deaf and dumb children to hear and speak
(C) undergoing medical treatment for himself
(D) devoting his full time to his invention
(E) giving demonstration of his invention
Ans : (C)

9. Bell establishing an institution for the deaf and dumb children shows that he was–
(A) an expert scientist
(B) a curious explorer
(C) a dedicated social worker
(D) genuinely emphatic towards the technology
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 10–12) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST NEARLY THE SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

10. Dedicated
(A) Appointed
(B) Deployed
(C) Devoted
(D) Religious
(E) Noteworthy
Ans : (C)

11. Apart from
(A) In addition to
(B) At a long distance
(C) Separated from
(D) Inspite of
(E) As against
Ans : (C)

12. Revolutionize
(A) Affect adversely
(B) Develop gradually
(C) Illuminate completely
(D) Change drastically
(E) Emphasize favourably
Ans : (D)

Directions– (Q. 13–15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. Pleasant
(A) Admirable
(B) Disgusting
(C) Nice
(D) Indecent
(E) Unexpected
Ans : (B)

14. Strange
(A) Familiar
(B) Unseen
(C) Illfamed
(D) Novel
(E) Conservative
Ans : (A)

15. Continued
(A) Irregular
(B) Destroyed
(C) Reckoned
(D) Suspended
(E) Carried on
Ans : (D)

Directions– (Q. 16–30) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

16. It was clear from the way (A) / they were behaving (B) / that they had been (C) / lost their senses. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

17. A small piece (A) / of bread is (B) / better than (C) / having nothing to eat. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

18. When he had been (A) / walked along the road (B) / a wild and ferocious dog (C) / hit him hard and knocked him down. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

19. That boy possess (A) / three beautiful pens (B) / but he would not (C) / show them to anyone. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

20. I am grateful to you (A) / and all your friends (B) / for Showing sympathy (C) / and kindness with me. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

21. Though I had been (A) / his friend for quite a long time, (B) / I refused to help him (C) / because his ill nature. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

22. Families are (A) / fortunate enough to own (B) / a house in the city (C) / are very few. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

23. Ramesh has been both (A) / a dishonestly person (B) / and a gambler (C) / since his childhood. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

24. Everyone of us know (A) / that he is not capable of (B) / remaining under water (C) / for such a long time. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

25. He is the man (A) / who I know (B) / has helped my son (C) / in the final examination. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

26. The number of employees (A) / reporting sick (B) / has reduced significantly (C) / because of the incentive. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

27. Your television set (A) / is superior to (B) / our television set (C) / by all respects. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

28. I have been (A) / living in Hyderabad (B) / at my uncle (C) / since my birth. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

29. The leader was so shrewd (A) / that he could not deceive (B) / by the words of (C) / the sycophant courtiers. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

30. The boy who was guilt for (A) / having broken the window glass (B) / came out (C) / with the truth. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions– (Q. 31–35) Rearrange the following sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
1. He felt that his honest ways were responsible for the poverty and starvation of his family.
2. Sixteen miles away from Mysore, there is a dense forest.
3. He told them how his honesty was useless and asked if he should try an alternative.
4. They 1old him that they would prefer starving to dishonesty.
5. Once there lived a poor but honest woodcutter in the forest.
6. So he wanted to discuss his feeling with his wife and children.

31. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

32. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

33. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)

34. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

35. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

Directions– (Q. 36–40) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningful complete.

36. You must ensure the correctness of the information before…………….to conclusion.
(A) drawing
(B) enabling
(C) leaning
(D) jumping
(E) examining
Ans : (A)

37. The rocket…………….the target and did not cause any casualty.
(A) sensed
(B) reached
(C) missed
(D) exploded
(E) aimed
Ans : (C)

38. It is desirable to take…………….in any business if you want to make profit.
(A) advice
(B) risk
(C) loan
(D) recourse
(E) perseverance
Ans : (B)

39. They wasted all the money on purchase of some…………….items.
(A) excellent
(B) important
(C) significant
(D) quality
(E) trivial
Ans : (E)

40. When he found the wallet his face glowed but soon it faded as the wallet was…………….
(A) empty
(B) vacant
(C) recovered
(D) stolen
(E) expensive
Ans : (A)

Directions– (Q. 41–50) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Jamshedji Tata is ...(41)... to be the path-finder of modern industrial builders. He is known as the grandfather of the Indian industry for his acumen and enthusiasm. Nobody else could have ...(42)... of the new industries started by Jamshedji at that time when industrial ...(43)... and revolution was yet to come to India.

Jamshedji's father Nasarvanji Tata used to trade in jute with China and Britain. He started...(44) ...from India. Jamshedji started a cloth mill in Nagpur more than hundred years ago. At that time almost all the …(45)... used to come from Lancashire in England. What Jamshedji ...(46)... was praiseworthy.

Jamshedji ...(47)... very well that an industrial revolution can only be brought in the country by setting up iron and steel industry …(48). ..he did not live to see the industry he had in mind, he had done all...(49)... work. In fact, he laid the ground work for it. He had planned the entire steel city now known as Jamshedpur, complete with streets, roads, schools, parks, play grounds, temples, mosques, churches, etc. His...(50) ...was fulfilled by his sons, Sir Dorabji Tata and Sir Rattan Tata, when they started the Tata Iron & Steel Factory in 1907 just after three years of his death.

41. (A) rewarded
(B) agreed
(C) empowere?
(D) determined
(E) considered
Ans : (E)

42. (A) absolved
(B) thought
(C) ventured
(D) set
(E) planned
Ans : (B)

43. (A) imports
(B) acts
(C) machinery
(D) awakening
(E) factories
Ans : (D)

44. (A) export
(B) industries
(C) import
(D) trade
(E) dispatch
Ans : (A)

45. (A) goods
(B) imports
(C) cloth
(D) machines
(E) industries
Ans : (C)

46. (A) did
(B) dreamt
(C) agreed
(D) told
(E) meant
Ans : (A)

47. (A) felt
(B) advocated
(C) planned
(D) thought
(E) knew
Ans : (E)

48. (A) Because
(B) Although
(C) Surprisingly
(D) Luckily
(E) Even
Ans : (B)

49. (A) insignificant
(B) complete
(C) trivial
(D) preliminary
(E) external
Ans : (D)

50. (A) need
(B) task
(C) dream
(D) industry
(E) sentiment
Ans : (C)

Tuesday, November 8, 2011

IBPS GENERAL AWARENESS MCQs

1.  Which former Supreme Court judge has been appointed as the new Lokayukta of Karnataka to succeed Santosh Hegde?
a. Shivraj Patil
b. Shivaraj V Patil
c. H D Ramaswamy
d. Ram Krishna Hegde
2.  The Deutsche Bank has confirmed to appoint which of the following Indian investment bankers as its co-CEO?
a. Navin Chandra
b. Rahul Jain
c. Anshu Jain
d. Ravi Mallick
3.  India signed a civil nuclear cooperation agreement with which country paving way for the possibility of exporting its atomic power plants recently?
a. North Korea
b. South Korea
c. China
d. Singapore
4.  Recently which country won the Copa America and was crowned South American champion for a record 15th time?
a. Brazil
b. Argentina
c. Paraguay
d. Uruguay
5.  Which of the following Indian swimmers has qualified for the 2012 London Olympics?
a. Vikas Mishra
b. Aditi Solanki
c. Sandeep Sejwal
d. Rajiv Ratan
6. Recently IAF has taken the initiative to take part in the "mother" of all air combat exercises, the Red Flag, which is conducted by ___.
a. Russia
b. France
c. Britain
d. USA
7. Government of India has recently notified which of the following chemicals as an explosive?
a. Ammonium chloride
b. Ammonium nitrate
c. Ammonium carbide
d. Calcium carbide
8.  Name the world's fourth largest car-maker who has decided to set up a three lakh cars-per-annum manufacturing plant in Sanand.
a. Ford
b. General Motors
c. Toyota Motors
d. Hyundai 
9.  The Central Board of Trustees, the apex decision-making body of the Employees Provident Fund Organisation, approved appointment of which bank as the custodian of securities of the EPFO?
a. RBS
b. HSBC
c. Standard Chartered
d. ABN Amro
10.  ___ got the top position in the latest FIFA Rankings.
a. Germany
b. Spain
c. Brazil
d. Uruguay
11. ‘Jiaolong’ was in news recently because it is ___.
a. A manned mission to  moon by China
b. A rehabilitation and  relief operation by Japan
c. China’s manned  submersible
d. None of the above
12. Which of the following personalities unveiled the Olympic countdown clock?
a. Gagan Narang and  Saina Nehwal
b. Abhinav Bindra and  Mary Kom
c. Rajyavardhan Singh  Rathore and Sushil Kumar
d. Abhinav Bindra and  Saina Nehwal
13. Gopal Subramaniam resigned from post of Solicitor-General of India. Name the senior advocate who has been appointed to take his place.
a. Rohinton Mistry
b. Fali S Nariman
c. Rohinton Nariman
d. Fiourdasji Sorabji
14. Concerned over the increasing pollution-level in Chandrapur, which of the following NGOs started a drive titled 'Green Ganesha' about pollution-free Ganesh Utsav?
a. Green-Hunt
b. Green-Eco
c. Eco-Ganesha
d. Eco-Pro
15. A joint venture between ___ has produced the LCV (light commercial vehicle), “Dost”.
a. Ashok Leyland &  Nissan Motors
b. Ashok Leyland & Renault
c. Tata Motors & Nissan  Motors
d. Mahindra & Mahindra &  Nissan Motors
16. Which sports person will be conferred with the honour of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Awards for the year 2010?
a. Saina Nehwal
b. Mahendra Singh Dhoni
c. Gagan Narang
d. M C Mary Kom
17. Recently, a committee has been constituted by the National Statistical Commission to actively consider whether there is a need for any umbrella legislation to make administrative statistics more ef ective and is headed by ___.
a. Meghnad Desai
b. Rakesh Mohan
c. Jean Dreze
d. N R Madhava Menon 
18. Which of the following Indian women has found a place in the Time's list of daredevil wives?
a. Razia Sultana
b. Indira Gandhi
c. Rani Lakshmi Bai
d. Sonia Gandhi
19. Which among the following is the second woman chess player from India to win the grandmaster title at the Women's Grandmasters tournament in China?
a. Vijayalakshmi  Subbaraman
b. Koneru Hampi
c. Harika Dronavalli
d. Trupti Murugunde
20. The central government has sought a partnership in publicising of Bharat Nirman Programme with ___.
a. ONGC
b. Indian Railways
c. India Post
b. Doordarshan
21. Recently Indian President Pratibha Patil released a commemorative postage stamp on Rashtrapati Bhavan which marks the 80th Anniversary of the commissioning of the building. Which of the following Governor Generals of India was its first occupant?
a. Lord Amherst
b. Lord Irvin
c. Lord Reading
d. Lord Linlithgow
22. A 12-month ban on synthetic cannabis products has come into effect in New Zealand as they may harm health, including causing heart problems. Cannabis is used since ancient times for as ___.
a. An antibiotic drug
b. A catalyst drug
c. A mineral supplement
d. A recreational drug
23. Rebecca Rickwood won a global competition to find the best use of Microsoft's spreadsheet software, Excel 2007. She belongs to ___.
a. Canada
b. New Zealand
c. India
d. United Kingdom
24. Russian cosmonauts carried out a fraught six-and-a-half-hour space walk recently, releasing a student satellite which will send greetings to radio enthusiasts in 15 languages, as well as photos and pressure data, to commemorate which of the following cosmonauts?
a. Vyacheslov Zudov
b. Valetina Tereshkova
c. Yuri Gagarin
d. Boris Yegorov
25. The food giant Cargill in ___recalled 18,000 tons (16,330 tonnes) of turkey after a salmonella outbreak that killed one person and made dozens ill.
a. Mexico
b. United States of America
c. Denmark
d. United Kingdom
26. Which one of the following Indian companies has entered into collaboration with the Singapore Management University (SMU) for a new R&D facility for cloud-based IT solutions for cities worldwide?
a. Tata Consultancy Services
b. Wipro Technologies
c. Infosys
d. Mahindra Satyam
27. Actress Annette Charles, who played Cha Cha DiGregorio, in the hit movie Grease, died at the age of 63. She belonged to which country?
a. United Kingdom
b. United States of America
c. France
d. Greece
28. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs gave a major fillip to Maharatna SAIL by approving its proposal for revival of the Sindri fertiliser-manufacturing unit that belongs to ___.
a. Krishak Bharti  Cooperative Limited  (KRIBHCO)
b. Indian Farmers Fertiliser  Cooperative Limited  (IFFCO)
c. Tata Chemicals Limited  (TCL)
d. Fertiliser Cooperation of  India (FCIL)
29. Top Indian runner, Tintu Luka won the gold medal at Karlstad Grand Prix in Sweden in her first of the series of events planned as preparation for this month’s World Championships in South Korea. She was the runner-up in ___.
a. 200 m race
b. 400 m race
c. 800 m race
d. 1500 m race
30. Aaranyak, a wildlife research and bio-diversity conservation organisation based in ___ will assist authorities to undertake non-invasive genetics research on two critically endangered species — the Javan and the Sumatran rhinos.
a. Guwahati
b. Itanagar
c. Dispur
d. Tezpur

Ansewrs:

1.  b. Shivaraj V Patil
2. c. Anshu Jain
3. b. South Korea
4. d. Uruguay
5. c. Sandeep Sejwal
6. d. USA
7. b. Ammonium nitrate
8. a. Ford
9. c. Standard Chartered
10. b. Spain
11. c. China’s manned submersible
12. b. Abhinav Bindra and Mary Kom
13. c. Rohinton Nariman
14. d. Eco-Pro
15. a. Ashok Leyland & Nissan Motors
16. c. Gagan Narang
17. d. N R Madhava Menon
18. c. Rani Lakshmi Bai
19. c. Harika Dronavalli
20. b. Indian Railways
21. b. Lord Irvin
22. d. A recreational drug
23. d. United Kingdom
24. c. Yuri Gagarin
25. b. United States of America
26. a. Tata Consultancy Services
27. b. United States of America
28. d. Fertiliser Cooperation on of India (FCIL)
29. c. 800 m race
30. a. Guwahati

Saturday, November 5, 2011

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. As per the decision taken by the Govt. of India now the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is extended to all the districts of India. This means it will now be applicable to about:
1. 200 districts
2. 300 districts
3. 400 districts
4. 500 districts
5. 626 districts

2. Which of the following is the amount of insurance cover provided to the workers of the unorganized sector under Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana ?
1. Rs. 10,000
2. Rs. 20,000
3. Rs. 30,000
4. Rs. 40,000
5. Rs. 50,000

3. Which of the following banks has taken over the Centurion Bank of Punjab ?
1. ICICI Bank
2. IDBI Bank
3. HDFC Bank
4. AXIS Bank
5. None of these


4. Unique Identification Authority of India will set up data base for:
1. Identity and biometrics details of Indian residents
2. Identity and biometrics details of Indian citizens
3. Identity and biometrics details of person’s residents in India or visiting India
4. All the above
5. None of these

5. The biggest Public Sector undertaking in the country is:
1. Iron and steel plants
2. Roadways
3. Railways
4. Airways
5. None of these

6. Which of the following is Horticulture Crop?
1. Paddy
2. Wheat
3. Mango
4. Bajara
5. None of these

7. Which of the following nation is considered the originator of the concept of Micro Finance?
1. India
2. Bangladesh
3. South Africa
4. USA
5. None of these

8. Very often we read in news papers about 3G or 3rd Generation technology. This is a set of standards used for which of the following purposes ?
1. To combat climatic changes
2. Production of Nuclear Energy
3. Film Production
4. Mobile Telecommunications
5. All of these

9. What is the full form of ‘ULIP’, the term which was in the news recently ?
1. Universal Life and Investment Plan
2. Unit Loan and Insurance Plan
3. Universal Loan and Investment Plan
4. Uniformly Loaded Investment Plan
5. Unit Linked Insurance Plan

10. The main function of I. M. F. is to:
1. Finance investment loans to developing countries
2. Act as a private sector lending arm of the World Bank
3. Help to solve balance of payment problems of member countries
4. Arrange international deposits from banks
5. None of these

11. The difference between visible exports and visible imports is defined as:
1. Balance of trade
2. Balance of payment
3. Balanced terms of trade
4. Gains from trade
5. All the above

12. Invisible Export means export:
1. Services
2. Prohibited goods
3. Unrecorded goods
4. Goods through smuggling
5. All the above

13. ‘Indira Gandhi Canal’ which is around 450 km long provide irrigation facility mainly to which of the following states ?
1. Punjab
2. Haryana
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Gujarat
5. Rajasthan

14. The rate of MAT has been increased from the present 15% to 18% with effect from April 2010. What is the full form of MAT?
1. Maximum Alternate Tax
2. Minimum Alternate Tax
3. Minimum Affordable Tax
4. Maximum Affordable Tax
5. None of these

15. RBI has asked banks to make a plan to provide banking services to all villages having a population upto 2000. This directive issued by the RBI will fall in which of the following categories ?
1. Plan for Financial Inclusion
2. Efforts to meet the targets of Priority Sector Lending
3. Extension of Relief Packages to the Farmers
4. Plan for opening more rural branches
5. None of these

16. Which of the following is not a part of the scheduled banking structure in India ?
1. Money Lenders
2. Public Sector Banks
3. Private Sector Banks
4. Regional Rural Banks
5. State Cooperative Banks

17. The rate of interest on Savings Bank Account is stipulated by–
1. The concerned bank
2. RBI
3. Indian Banks Association
4. Government of India
5. Banking Codes and Standards Board of India

18. Many times we read a term CBS used in banking operation. What is the full form of the letter ‘C’ in the term ‘CBS’ ?
1. Core
2. Credit
3. Continuous
4. Complete
5. None of these

19. In the year 2010, Commonwealth Games were organized in which of the following countries?
1. China
2. South Africa
3. Canada
4. Brazil
5. India

20. Which of the following metals is used for generation of nuclear Energy by most of the Nuclear Power Plants
1. Zinc
2. Platinum
3. Uranium
4. Nickel
5. None of these

21. Many a time we read a term ‘PPP’ in financial dailies/ magazines. What is the full form of the same as used in financial world ?
1. Public Per Capita Power
2. Per Capita Potential Purchases
3. Purchasing Power Parity
4. Present Purchasing Power
5. None of these

22. The recent press report indicates that one of the Economies of the world took over another Economy in GDP terms to gain nubmer Two, ranking at world level. Which one of the following country is that ?
1. Japan
2. China
3. Germany
4. Australia
5. India

23. Which of the following villagers received first lot of UID numbers ?
1. Vaijapur in Maharashtra
2. Bedkihal in Karnataka
3. Tembhli in Maharashtra
4. Navagam in Gujarat
5. None of these

24. The highest weight in the revised Wholesale Price Index, implemented from September 2010 is given to which of the following item ?
1. Fuel
2. Food items
3. Manufactured items
4. Primary Articles
5. All of these

25. Which one of the following is a driving force influencing the industrial growth of an economy?
1. Economic Factors only
2. Investment only
3. Innovation/Market Base only
4. Only 1 and 2
5. All 1, 2 and 3

26. What do you understand by Community Development programmes ?
1. Villages participation in the programme
2. A movement to promote better living for the whole community
3. A movement to promote better living for the whole community with the assistance of local Government
4. A movement designed to promote better living for the whole community with the active participation and on the initiative of the community
5. None of these

27. In which one of the following activities percentage share of cooperative sector is the highest ?
1. Agricultural Credit disbursement
2. Sugar production
3. Wheat procurement
4. Fertilizer distribution
5. Handlooms

28. What is a Panchayati Raj ?
1. It is a community development programme
2. It is a cooperative movement
3. It is a scheme of self governance
4. It is an exercise in decentralisation of administrative authority
5. It is an out dated system, not followed now

29. Which one of the following is the updated base 7for Wholesale Price Index (WPI) ?
1. 2002-2003
2. 2003-2004
3. 2004-2005
4. 2005-2006
5. 2006-2007

30. What is a Green Index ?
1. It measures nation’s wealth according to GNP per capita
2. It measures nation’s wealth according to GDP per captia
3. It measures nation’s wealth according to provisions of control on Green house gases
4. It measures nation’s wealth in terms of coverage of forest area
5. None of these

31. In which one of the following city, 2012 Olympics are proposed to be held ?
1. Frankfurt
2. London
3. Tokyo
4. Washington
5. Dubai

32. In which one of the following states, Rosa Power Plant is located ?
1. U.P.
2. M.P.
3. Orissa
4. Haryana
5. Punjab

33. Which one of the following is present Saving Bank Interest Rate (in percentage terms) ?
1. 3.0
2. 3.5
3. 4.0
4. 4.5
5. 5.0

34. For calculation of poverty line in rural area, which one of the following calories consumption per day per person has been stipulated by Planning Commission?
1. 2000
2. 2100
3. 2400
4. 2500
5. None of these

35. Who is Julian Assange ?
1. Founder, Google
2. Founder, Rediffmail
3. Nominee, Nobel Prize for Literature 2010
4. Founder, WikiLeaks
5. None of these

36. For which one of the following States, interloculators’ panel has been appointed by the Centre ?
1. Manipur
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Assanm
4. Nagaland (F) J&K
5. None of these

37. Expand the term BCBS.
1. Bank’s Committee on Banking Supervision
2. Basel Committee on Banking Supervision
3. Bank’s Commission on Banking Supervision
4. Basel Commission on Banking Supervision
5. None of these

38. By which one of the following years, Government proposes to introduce IFRS norms?
1. April 2011
2. October 2011
3. April 2012
4. October 2012
5. None of these

39. As per World Development Report 2009, if the poverty is measured by the international poverty line standard of below a dollar a day, approximately what per cent of people will be living in India below poverty line ?
1. 25.0
2. 27.5
3. 34.5
4. 58.5
5. 10.5

40. Who is Kaushik Basu ?
1. Dy. Governor, RBI
2. Member Planning Commission
3. Chairman, Prime Ministers’ Economic Advisory Council
4. Chief Economic Advisor
5. Secretary-General FICCI

41. In a Poverty Pyramid index, which one of the following segments of population face highest poverty risk ?
1. Formal wage employment
2. Informal Self Employment : Employers
3. Regular Informal Wage employment
4. Informal Self Employment own account
5. Casual Informal Wage Employment and domestic work

42. Which one of the following is a Self Employment Programme for Educated Unemployed Youth ?
1. Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana
2. Swaran Jayanti Sahakari Rozgar Yojana
3. National Social Assistance Programme
4. Swaran Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
5. None of these

43. In which one of the following States, Sariska Tiger Reserve is located ?
1. M. P.
2. Gujarat
3. Rajasthan
4. West Bengal
5. Orissa

44. Who is Mohammed Yunus ?
1. Finance Minister, Bangladesh
2. Founder, Grameen Bank
3. Nobel Laureate for peace
4. Foreign Minister, Pakistan
5. Founder Micro Finance Institutions in India

45. Which one of the following is the primary source of energy in India ?
1. Hydel Power
2. Natural Gas
3. Coal
4. Naptha
5. Non-conventional energy

46. At which one of the following rate, the Central Bank lends to banks against government securities ?
1. Repo Rate
2. Reverse Repo Rate
3. Bank Rate
4. SLR
5. CRR

47. Which one of the following is not a member of BASIC ?
1. India
2. China
3. South Africa
4. Brazil
5. Indonesia

48. Which one of the following Corporate Groups has argued in Supreme Court that leaks of Radia Tapes has affected its reputation ?
1. RIL
2. Jindal Steels
3. Bajaj Group
4. Adani Group
5. Tata Group

49. Yuan currency belongs to which one of the following countries ?
1. Japan
2. Thailand
3. South Korea
4. China
5. Vietnam

50. Aung San Sau Kyi, Nobel Peace Prize Winner belongs to which one of the following countries?
1. China
2. North Korea
3. South Korea
4. Japan
5. Myanmar

ANSWERS:

1. (5) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (4) 9. (5) 10. (3)
11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (5) 14. (2) 15. (4) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (5) 20. (3)
21. (3) 22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (5) 25. (5) 26. (1) 27. (5) 28. (4) 29. (3) 30. (4)
31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (4) 36. (5) 37. (2) 38. (1) 39. (2) 40. (4)
41. (1) 42. (1) 43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (3) 46. (5) 47.(5) 48.(5) 49.(4) 50. (5)

IBPS REASONING SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Verbal

1. If Step IV reads ‘to restrict the use of air conditioners”, which of the following will definitely be the input?
(1)use to of the air conditioners restrict
(2)restrict the to of air conditioners use
(3)the air conditioners of restrict use to
(4) Can’t be determined
(5) None of these
Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A famous museum issues entry passes to all its visitors for security reasons. Visitors are allowed in batches after every one hour. In a day there are six batches. A code is printed on entry pass which keeps on changing for every batch. Following is an illustration of pass-codes issued for each batch.
Batch I:
clothes neat and clean liked are all by
Batch II: by clothes neat all are and clean liked
Batch III: liked by clothes clean and neat all are and so on…
2. If pass-code for the third batch is ‘night succeed day and hard work-to for’, what will be the pass-code for the sixth batch?
(1)work hard to for succeed night and day
(2)hard work for and succeed night to day
(3)work hard for to succeed night and day
(4)hard work for to succeed night and day
(5) None of these
3. If ‘visit in zoo should the time day’ is the pass-code for the fifth batch, zoo we the should visit day time in’ will be the pass-code for which of following batches?
(1) II
(2) IV
(3) I
(4) III
(5) VI
4. Sanjay visited the museum in the fourth batch and was issued a pass-code ‘to fast rush avoid not do very run’. What would have been the pass-code for him had he visited the museum in the second bitch?
(1)rush do not avoid to run very fast
(2)rush not do-avoid to run very
(3)avoid rush not do to run very fast
(4) Date inadequate
(5) None of these
5. Subodh went to visit the museum in the second batch. He was issued a pass-code ‘length the day equal of an night are’. However, he could not visit the museum in the second batch as he was a little late. He then preferred to visit in the fifth batch. What will be the new pass-code issued to him?
(1)and of are night the length equal day
(2)and are of night the length equal day
(3)and of are night the equal day length
(4 )an d of are th e night len gth day equal
(5) None of these
6. If ass-code for the second batch is ‘to confidence hard you leads work and success’, what will be the pass-code for the fourth batch?
(1)leads success to you hard confidence and work
(2)leads success you to hard confidence and work
(3)leads success to you hard confidence work and
(4)leads to success you hard confidence and work
(5) None of these7. If the pass-code issued for the last (sixth) batch is ‘and pencil by all boys used are pen’, what will be the passcode for the first batch?
(1)pencil and pen are used by all boys
(2)pen and pencil used are by all boys
(3)pen and pencil are used by all boys
(4)Pencil and pen are used all by boys
(5) None of these
8. If the pass-code for the sixth batch is ‘not go the way to of out do’, what will be the pass-code for the third batch?
(1)Of do to out go not way the
(2)of to do out not go way the
(3)of to go out do not way the
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of theseDirections: Study the following information to answer the given questions:
A word rearrangement machine when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and the steps of rearrangement:
Input: Over you pat me crow easy to.
Steps: (I) pat over you crow easy to me
Steps: (II) crow pat over you to me easy
Steps: (III) over crow pal to me easy you
Steps: (IV) to over crow pat easy you me and so on.
As per the rule followed in the above steps, find out the appropriate step for the given input in the following questions:
9. If Step II of an input is ‘ge su but he for game free’, what would be step VI?
(1)a for but fine he game su
(2)for free ge game su he but
(3)free ge for but game su he
(4)he ge su but game free for
(5) None of these
10. If step IV of an input is ‘blue navy kit lime se get‘, which of the following would definitely be the input?
(1)navy get lime out kit se blue
(2)lime navy get kit se blue out
(3)lime blue navy kit get out se
(4)kit blue navy se get out lime
(5) None of these
11. Input: but calm free are so not eat. Which of the following will be the 3rd step for this input?
(1)so free but calm eat are not
(2)but calm are free not so eat
(3)are but calm free not eat so
(4)but so free eat are not calm
(5) None of these
12. If step V of an input is ‘put down col in as mach sa’ , what would be the 8th step?
(1)down in put much sa as col
(2)in put down cot much sa as
(3)much in put down sa as col
(4)col put down as much sa in
(5) None of these13. Input: rim bye eat klin fe to low Which of the following steps would be ‘fe low rim to bye klin eat’?
(1) VIth
(2) vth
(3) IVth
(4) IIIrd
(5) None of these
Directions: A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement:
Input: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
Step I: Put for he watch hand pocket them.
Step II: Put he for watch pocket hand them.
Step III: Put hand pocket watch for he them.
Step IV: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
And so on goes the machine. Study the logic and answer the questions that follow:
14. If Step III of a given input be ‘fly sky birds my su fur say’, what is the seventh step of the input?
(1)fly sky birds my su fur say
(2)fly birds sky my fur su say
(3)fly fur su my birds sky say
(4)fly su fur my sky birds say
(5) None of these
15. If Step VII of an input is ‘slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi’, what is step V of that input?
(1)slow dig hak pat dhurwa ran vi
(2)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(3)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(4)slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi
(5) None of these

Answers

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (5) 9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (5) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (2)

Non Verbal



Answers

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (2)

IBPS Numerical Ability Sample Questions

1. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them?
1. 25
2. 26
3. 27
4. 30 5. 26
Answer: (3)
2. The numerator of a non-zero rational number is five less than the denominator. If the denominator is increased by eight and the numerator is doubled, then again we get the same rational number. The required rational number is:
1. 1/8
2. 4/9
3. 2/8
4. 3/8
5. 3/8
Answer: (5)
3. Find the greatest number that will divide 640, 710 and 1526 so as to leave 11, 7, 9 as remainders respectively.
1. 36
2. 37
3. 42
4. 29
5. 47
Answer: (2)
4. Jayesh is as much younger than Anil as he is older than Prashant. If the sum of the ages of Anil and Prashant is 48 years, what is Jayesh’s age in years?
1. 29
2. 30
3. 24
4. 25
5. 28
Answer: (3)
5. A bag contains one rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 5. Their total value is Rs. 114. The value of 50 paise coins is:
1. Rs. 28
2. Rs. 36
3. Rs. 49
4. Rs. 72
5. Rs. 50
Answer: (1)
6. A tempo is insured to the extent of 4 5 of its original value. If the premium on it at the rate of 1.3 percent amounts to Rs. 910, the original value of the tempo is:
1. Rs. 78,000
2. Rs. 78,500
3. Rs. 80,000
4. Rs. 85,000
5. Rs. 87,500
Answer: (5)
7. By selling 45 lemons for Rs. 40, a man loses 20%. How many should he sell for Rs. 24 to gain 20% in the transaction?
1. 19
2. 18
3. 24
4. 22
5. 23
Answer: (2)
8. In a ratio, which is equal to 3 : 4, if the antecedent is 12, then the consequent is:
1. 10
2. 16
3. 20
4. 22
5. 18
Answer: (2)9. A, B and C are employed to do a piece of work for Rs. 529. A and B together are supposed to do 19/23 of the work and B and C together 8/23 of the work. What amount should A be paid?
1. Rs. 320
2. Rs. 345
3. Rs. 355
4. Rs. 380
5. None of these
Answer: (2)
10. A boy rides his bicycle 10 km at an average speed of 12 km/hr and again travels 12 km at an average speed of 10 km/hr. His average speed for the entire trip is approximately :
1. 10.4 km/hr
2. 10.8 km/hr
3. 12 km/hr
4. 14 km/hr
5. 13 km/hr
Answer: (2)
11. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together at random. What is the probability of both the cards being kings?
1. 1/19
2. 27/29
3. 35/256
4. 1/121
5. 35/121
Answer: (4)
12. An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple interest, but he includes the interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest becomes:
1. 13%
2. 10.25%
3. 15%
4. 11%
5. None of these
Answer: (2)
13. A towel, when bleached, was found to have lost 20% of its length and 10% of its breadth. The percentage of decrease in area is:
1. 11%
2. 12%
3. 20%
4. 28%
5. 33%
Answer: (4)
14. What is the difference in exports between the periods March to May and June to August (in $ million)?
1. 418
2. 592
3. 5790
4. 585
5. None of these
Answer: (4)
15. If the exports of company B in the year 2003 were Rs. 77 crore, then, what were the imports of the company in that year?
1. 86 crore
2. 107.5 crore
3. 103.95 crore
4. 101 crore
5. None of these
Answer: (3)

Wednesday, November 2, 2011

BAKING TERMINOLOGY

  •  
  • Accrued interest: Interest due from issue date or from the last coupon payment date to the settlement date. Accrued interest on bonds must be added to their purchase price.
  • Arbitrage: Buying a financial instrument in one market in order to sell the same instrument at a higher price in another market.
  • Ask Price: The lowest price at which a dealer is willing to sell a given security.
  • Asset-Backed Securities (ABS): A type of security that is backed by a pool of bank loans, leases, and other assets. Most ABS are backed by auto loans and credit cards – these issues are very similar to mortgage-backed securities.
  • At-the-money: The exercise price of a derivative that is closest to the market price of the underlying instrument.
  • Basis Point: One hundredth of 1%. A measure normally used in the statement of interest rate e.g., a change from 5.75% to 5.81% is a change of 6 basis points.
  • Bear Markets: Unfavorable markets associated with falling prices and investor pessimism.
  • Bid-ask Spread: The difference between a dealer’s bid and ask price.
  • Bid Price: The highest price offered by a dealer to purchase a given security.
  • Blue Chips: Blue chips are unsurpassed in quality and have a long and stable record of earnings and dividends. They are issued by large and well-established firms that have impeccable financial credentials.
  • Bond: Publicly traded long-term debt securities, issued by corporations and governments, whereby the issuer agrees to pay a fixed amount of interest over a specified period of time and to repay a fixed amount of principal at maturity.
  • Book Value: The amount of stockholders’ equity in a firm equals the amount of the firm’s assets minus the firm’s liabilities and preferred stock. /p>
  • Broker: Individuals licensed by stock exchanges to enable investors to buy and sell securities.
  • Brokerage Fee: The commission charged by a broker.
  • Bull Markets: Favorable markets associated with rising prices and investor optimism.
  • Call Option: The right to buy the underlying securities at a specified exercise price on or before a specified expiration date.
  • Callable Bonds: Bonds that give the issuer the right to redeem the bonds before their stated maturity.
  • Capital Gain: The amount by which the proceeds from the sale of a capital asset exceed its original purchase price.
  • Capital Markets: The market in which long-term securities such as stocks and bonds are bought and sold.
  • Certificate of Deposits (CDs): Savings instrument in which funds must remain on deposit for a specified period, and premature withdrawals incur interest penalties.
  • Closed-end (Mutual) Fund: A fund with a fixed number of shares issued, and all trading is done between investors in the open market. The share prices are determined by market prices instead of their net asset value.
  • Collateral: A specific asset pledged against possible default on a bond. Mortgage bonds are backed by claims on property. Collateral trusts bonds are backed by claims on other securities. Equipment obligation bonds are backed by claims on equipment.
  • Commercial Paper: Short-term and unsecured promissory notes issued by corporations with very high credit standings.
  • Common Stock: Equity investment representing ownership in a corporation; each share represents a fractional ownership interest in the firm.
  • Compound Interest: Interest paid not only on the initial deposit but also on any interest accumulated from one period to the next.
  • Contract Note: A note which must accompany every security transaction which contains information such as the dealer’s name (whether he is acting as principal or agent) and the date of contract.
  • Controlling Shareholder: Any person who is, or group of persons who together are, entitled to exercise or control the exercise of a certain amount of shares in a company at a level (which differs by jurisdiction) that triggers a mandatory general offer, or more of the voting power at general meetings of the issuer, or who is or are in a position to control the composition of a majority of the board of directors of the issuer.
  • Convertible Bond: A bond with an option, allowing the bondholder to exchange the bond for a specified number of shares of common stock in the firm. A conversion price is the specified value of the shares for which the bond may be exchanged. The conversion premium is the excess of the bond’s value over the conversion price.
  • Corporate Bond: Long-term debt issued by private corporations.
  • Coupon: The feature on a bond that defines the amount of annual interest income.
  • Coupon Frequency: The number of coupon payments per year.
  • Coupon Rate: The annual rate of interest on the bond’s face value that a bond’s issuer promises to pay the bondholder. It is the bond’s interest payment per dollar of par value.
  • Covered Warrants: Derivative call warrants on shares which have been separately deposited by the issuer so that they are available for delivery upon exercise.
  • Credit Rating: An assessment of the likelihood of an individual or business being able to meet its financial obligations. Credit ratings are provided by credit agencies or rating agencies to verify the financial strength of the issuer for investors.
  • Currency Board: A monetary system in which the monetary base is fully backed by foreign reserves. Any changes in the size of the monetary base has to be fully matched by corresponding changes in the foreign reserves.
  • Current Yield: A return measure that indicates the amount of current income a bond provides relative to its market price. It is shown as: Coupon Rate divided by Price multiplied by 100%.
  • Custody of Securities: Registration of securities in the name of the person to whom a bank is accountable, or in the name of the bank’s nominee; plus deposition of securities in a designated account with the bank’s bankers or with any other institution providing custodial services.
  • Default Risk: The possibility that a bond issuer will default ie, fail to repay principal and interest in a timely manner.
  • Derivative Call (Put) Warrants: Warrants issued by a third party which grant the holder the right to buy (sell) the shares of a listed company at a specified price.
  • Derivative Instrument: Financial instrument whose value depends on the value of another asset.
  • Discount Bond: A bond selling below par, as interest in-lieu to the bondholders.
  • Diversification: The inclusion of a number of different investment vehicles in a portfolio in order to increase returns or be exposed to less risk.
  • Duration: A measure of bond price volatility, it captures both price and reinvestment risks to indicate how a bond will react to different interest rate environments.
  • Earnings: The total profits of a company after taxation and interest.
  • Earnings per Share (EPS): The amount of annual earnings available to common stockholders as stated on a per share basis.
  • Earnings Yield: The ratio of earnings to price (E/P). The reciprocal is price earnings ratio (P/E).
  • Equity: Ownership of the company in the form of shares of common stock.
  • Equity Call Warrants: Warrants issued by a company which give the holder the right to acquire new shares in that company at a specified price and for a specified period of time.
  • Ex-dividend (XD): A security which no longer carries the right to the most recently declared dividend or the period of time between the announcement of the dividend and the payment (usually two days before the record date). For transactions during the ex-dividend period, the seller will receive the dividend, not the buyer. Ex-dividend status is usually indicated in newspapers with an (x) next to the stock’s or unit trust’s name.
  • Face Value/ Nominal Value: The value of a financial instrument as stated on the instrument. Interest is calculated on face/nominal value.
  • Fixed-income Securities: Investment vehicles that offer a fixed periodic return.
  • Fixed Rate Bonds: Bonds bearing fixed interest payments until maturity date.
  • Floating Rate Bonds: Bonds bearing interest payments that are tied to current interest rates.
  • Fundamental Analysis: Research to predict stock value that focuses on such determinants as earnings and dividends prospects, expectations for future interest rates and risk evaluation of the firm.
  • Future Value: The amount to which a current deposit will grow over a period of time when it is placed in an account paying compound interest.
  • Future Value of an Annuity: The amount to which a stream of equal cash flows that occur in equal intervals will grow over a period of time when it is placed in an account paying compound interest.
  • Futures Contract: A commitment to deliver a certain amount of some specified item at some specified date in the future.
  • Hedge: A combination of two or more securities into a single investment position for the purpose of reducing or eliminating risk.
  • Income: The amount of money an individual receives in a particular time period.
  • Index Fund: A mutual fund that holds shares in proportion to their representation in a market index, such as the S&P 500.
  • Initial Public Offering (IPO): An event where a company sells its shares to the public for the first time. The company can be referred to as an IPO for a period of time after the event.
  • Inside Information: Non-public knowledge about a company possessed by its officers, major owners, or other individuals with privileged access to information.
  • Insider Trading: The illegal use of non-public information about a company to make profitable securities transactions
  • Intrinsic Value: The difference of the exercise price over the market price of the underlying asset.
  • Investment: A vehicle for funds expected to increase its value and/or generate positive returns.
  • Investment Adviser: A person who carries on a business which provides investment advice with respect to securities and is registered with the relevant regulator as an investment adviser.
  • IPO price: The price of share set before being traded on the stock exchange. Once the company has gone Initial Public Offering, the stock price is determined by supply and demand.
  • Junk Bond: High-risk securities that have received low ratings (i.e. Standard & Poor’s BBB rating or below; or Moody’s BBB rating or below) and as such, produce high yields, so long as they do not go into default.
  • Leverage Ratio: Financial ratios that measure the amount of debt being used to support operations and the ability of the firm to service its debt.
  • Libor: The London Interbank Offered Rate (or LIBOR) is a daily reference rate based on the interest rates at which banks offer to lend unsecured funds to other banks in the London wholesale money market (or interbank market). The LIBOR rate is published daily by the British Banker’s Association and will be slightly higher than the London Interbank Bid Rate (LIBID), the rate at which banks are prepared to accept deposits.
  • Limit Order: An order to buy (sell) securities which specifies the highest (lowest) price at which the order is to be transacted.
  • Limited Company: The passive investors in a partnership, who supply most of the capital and have liability limited to the amount of their capital contributions.
  • Liquidity: The ability to convert an investment into cash quickly and with little or no loss in value.
  • Listing: Quotation of the Initial Public Offering company’s shares on the stock exchange for public trading.
  • Listing Date: The date on which Initial Public Offering stocks are first traded on the stock exchange by the public
  • Margin Call: A notice to a client that it must provide money to satisfy a minimum margin requirement set by an Exchange or by a bank / broking firm.
  • Market Capitalization: The product of the number of the company’s outstanding ordinary shares and the market price of each share.
  • Market Maker: A dealer who maintains an inventory in one or more stocks and undertakes to make continuous two-sided quotes.
  • Market Order: An order to buy or an order to sell securities which is to be executed at the prevailing market price.
  • Money Market: Market in which short-term securities are bought and sold.
  • Mutual Fund: A company that invests in and professionally manages a diversified portfolio of securities and sells shares of the portfolio to investors.
  • Net Asset Value: The underlying value of a share of stock in a particular mutual fund; also used with preferred stock.
  • Offer for Sale: An offer to the public by, or on behalf of, the holders of securities already in issue.
  • Offer for Subscription: The offer of new securities to the public by the issuer or by someone on behalf of the issuer.
  • Open-end (Mutual) Fund: There is no limit to the number of shares the fund can issue. The fund issues new shares of stock and fills the purchase order with those new shares. Investors buy their shares from, and sell them back to, the mutual fund itself. The share prices are determined by their net asset value.
  • Open Offer: An offer to current holders of securities to subscribe for securities whether or not in proportion to their existing holdings.
  • Option: A security that gives the holder the right to buy or sell a certain amount of an underlying financial asset at a specified price for a specified period of time.
  • Oversubscribed: When an Initial Public Offering has more applications than actual shares available. Investors will often apply for more shares than required in anticipation of only receiving a fraction of the requested number. Investors and underwriters will often look to see if an IPO is oversubscribed as an indication of the public’s perception of the business potential of the IPO company.
  • Par Bond: A bond selling at par (i.e. at its face value).
  • Par Value: The face value of a security.
  • Perpetual Bonds: Bonds which have no maturity date.
  • Placing: Obtaining subscriptions for, or the sale of, primary market, where the new securities of issuing companies are initially sold.
  • Portfolio: A collection of investment vehicles assembled to meet one or more investment goals.
  • Preference Shares: A corporate security that pays a fixed dividend each period. It is senior to ordinary shares but junior to bonds in its claims on corporate income and assets in case of bankruptcy.
  • Premium (Warrants): The difference of the market price of a warrant over its intrinsic value.
  • Premium Bond: Bond selling above par.
  • Present Value: The amount to which a future deposit will discount back to present when it is depreciated in an account paying compound interest.
  • Present Value of an Annuity: The amount to which a stream of equal cash flows that occur in equal intervals will discount back to present when it is depreciated in an account paying compound interest.
  • Price/Earnings Ratio (P/E): The measure to determine how the market is pricing the company’s common stock. The price/earnings (P/E) ratio relates the company’s earnings per share (EPS) to the market price of its stock.
  • Privatization: The sale of government-owned equity in nationalized industry or other commercial enterprises to private investors.
  • Prospectus: A detailed report published by the Initial Public Offering company, which includes all terms and conditions, application procedures, IPO prices etc, for the IPO
  • Put Option: The right to sell the underlying securities at a specified exercise price on of before a specified expiration date.
  • Rate of Return: A percentage showing the amount of investment gain or loss against the initial investment.
  • Real Interest Rate: The net interest rate over the inflation rate. The growth rate of purchasing power derived from an investment.
  • Redemption Value: The value of a bond when redeemed.
  • Reinvestment Value: The rate at which an investor assumes interest payments made on a bond which can be reinvested over the life of that security.
  • Relative Strength Index (RSI): A stock’s price that changes over a period of time relative to that of a market index such as the Standard & Poor’s 500, usually measured on a scale from 1 to 100, 1 being the worst and 100 being the best.
  • Repurchase Agreement: An arrangement in which a security is sold and later bought back at an agreed price and time.
  • Resistance Level: A price at which sellers consistently outnumber buyers, preventing further price rises.
  • Return: Amount of investment gain or loss.
  • Rights Issue: An offer by way of rights to current holders of securities that allows them to subscribe for securities in proportion to their existing holdings.
  • Risk-Averse, Risk-Neutral, Risk-Taking:
    Risk-averse describes an investor who requires greater return in exchange for greater risk.
    Risk-neutral describes an investor who does not require greater return in exchange for greater risk.
    Risk-taking describes an investor who will accept a lower return in exchange for greater risk.
  • Senior Bond: A bond that has priority over other bonds in claiming assets and dividends.
  • Short Hedge: A transaction that protects the value of an asset held by taking a short position in a futures contract.
  • Settlement: Conclusion of a securities transaction when a customer pays a broker/dealer for securities purchased or delivered, securities sold, and receives from the broker the proceeds of a sale.
  • Short Position: Investors sell securities in the hope that they will decrease in value and can be bought at a later date for profit.
  • Short Selling: The sale of borrowed securities, their eventual repurchase by the short seller at a lower price and their return to the lender.
  • Speculation: The process of buying investment vehicles in which the future value and level of expected earnings are highly uncertain.
  • Stock Splits: Wholesale changes in the number of shares. For example, a two for one split doubles the number of shares but does not change the share capital.
  • Subordinated Bond: An issue that ranks after secured debt, debenture, and other bonds, and after some general creditors in its claim on assets and earnings. Owners of this kind of bond stand last in line among creditors, but before equity holders, when an issuer fails financially.
  • Substantial Shareholder: A person acquires an interest in relevant share capital equal to, or exceeding, 10% of the share capital.
  • Support Level: A price at which buyers consistently outnumber sellers, preventing further price falls.
  • Technical Analysis: A method of evaluating securities by relying on the assumption that market data, such as charts of price, volume, and open interest, can help predict future (usually short-term) market trends. Contrasted with fundamental analysis which involves the study of financial accounts and other information about the company. (It is an attempt to predict movements in security prices from their trading volume history.)
  • Time Horizon: The duration of time an investment is intended for.
  • Trading Rules: Stipulation of parameters for opening and intra-day quotations, permissible spreads according to the prices of securities available for trading and board lot sizes for each security.
  • Trust Deed: A formal document that creates a trust. It states the purpose and terms of the name of the trustees and beneficiaries.
  • Underlying Security: The security subject to being purchased or sold upon exercise of the option contract.
  • Valuation: Process by which an investor determines the worth of a security using risk and return concept.
  • Warrant: An option for a longer period of time giving the buyer the right to buy a number of shares of common stock in company at a specified price for a specified period of time.
  • Window Dressing: Financial adjustments made solely for the purpose of accounting presentation, normally at the time of auditing of company accounts.
  • Yield (Internal rate of Return): The compound annual rate of return earned by an investment
  • Yield to Maturity: The rate of return yield by a bond held to maturity when both compound interest payments and the investor’s capital gain or loss on the security are taken into account.
  • Zero Coupon Bond: A bond with no coupon that is sold at a deep discount from par value.