IBPS to conduct common recruitment test for RRBs

The government has approved the proposal to hold common recruitment exam for filling up vacancies in the various regional rural banks (RRBs).

“We would conducting common test for RRBs as well in the future,” Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) Director Mr M Balachandran told.

At the moment, the institute is working out details for conducting exams for both officers and clerks for 82 RRBs, he said.

National Bank for Rural and Agriculture Development (NABARD) will supervise the whole selection process of CWE of IBPS.

The 19 public sector banks, excluding State Bank of India have been recruiting candidates for various posts through the Common Written Exam (CWE) conducted by the IBPS.

The new system of recruitment through CWE in the nationalised banks was started last year.

He said, IBPS has recently announced result for clerical exam held in which 30.31 lakh candidates appeared. Of this, 5.31 lakh candidates were declared qualified, he said.

Explaining the process, he said successful candidates in the CWE who will be issued scorecards are required to apply, quoting their CWE scores, to any of the participating banks they wish as and when individual banks call for applications The scorecard will be valid for one year.

Each bank will shortlist candidates and carry out their own selection processes such as interviews for final selection.

Each participating public sector bank independently issue a separate recruitment notification, specifying their vacancies and stipulating the eligibility criteria in terms of age and educational qualification, experience, minimum required level of IBPS score in each test etc.

The institute, promoted by PSU banks and the Reserve Bank, has been rendering assistance to the financial sector in activities of employee selection, promotion and placement.

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE MODEL SOLVED PAPER

1. One megabyte equals approximately ?
1) 1,000 bits
2) 1,000 bytes
3) 1 million bytes
4) 1 million bits
5) 2,000 bytes

2. Data going into the computer is called?
1) Output
2) Algorithm
3) Input
4) Calculations
5) Flowchart

3. Which of the following refers to the memory in your computer?
1) RAM
2) DSL
3) USB
4) LAN
5) CPU

4. When you are working on a document on PC, where is the document temporarily stored?
1) RAM
2) ROM
3) The CPU
4) Flash memory
5) The CD-Rom

5. Information travels between components on the mother board through-
1) Flash memory
2) CMOS
3)Bays
4) Buses
5) Peripherals


6. How are data organised in a spreadsheet?
1) Lines and spaces
2) Layers and planes
3) Height and width
4) Rows and columns
5) None of these

7. Which of the following is true?
1) Byte is a single digit in a binary number
2) Bit represents a grouping of digital numbers
3) Eight-digit binary number is called a byte
4) Eight-digit binary number is called a bit
5) None of these

8. Transformation of input into output is performed by?
1) Peripherals
2) Memory
3) Storage
4) The Input-Output unit
5) The CPU

9. How many options does a binary choice offer?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) It depends on the amount of memory in the computer
5) It depends on the speed of the computer's processor

10. .....is collection of web pages and ......is the very first page that we see on opening of a web-site
1) Home-page, Web-page
2) Web-site, Home-page
3) Web-page, Home-page
4) Web-page, Web-site
5) None of these

11. When the pointer is positioned on a _____ it is shaped like a hand.
1) Grammar error
2) Hyperlink
3) Screen tip
4) Spelling error
5) Formatting error

12. The _____ of a system includes the programs or instructions.
1) Hardware
2) Icon
3) Information
4) Software
5) None of these

13. 'www' stands for _____
1) World Word Web
2) World Wide Web
3) World White Web
4) World Work Web
5) None of these

14. What menu is selected to cut, copy, and paste?
1) File
2) Tools
3) Special
4) Edit
5) None

15. You can use the tab key to
1) Move a cursor across the screen
2) Indent a paragraph
3) Move the cursor down the screen
4) Only (1) and (2)
5) None of these

16. The most important or powerful computer in a typical network is _____
1) Desktop
2) Network client
3) Network server
4) Network station
5) None of these

17. Which of the following is an example of connectivity?
1) Internet
2) Floppy disk
3) Power cord
4) Data
5) None of these

18. The ability to find an individual item in a file immediately _____ is used.
1) File allocation table
2) Directory
3) Sequential access
4) Direct access
5) None of these

19. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into _____
1) Web sites
2) Information
3) Programs
4) Objects
5) None of these

20. To what temporary area can you store text and other data, and later paste them to another location?
1) The clipboard
2) ROM
3) CD-ROM
4) The hard disk
5) None of these

21. Storage that retains its data after the power is tuned off is referred to as 1) volatile storage
2) non-volatile storage
3) sequential storage
4) direct storage
5) None of these

22. _____is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the same type of intelligence that humans do.
1) Nano science
2) Nanotechnology
3) Simulation
4) Artificial intelligence (AI)
5) None of these

23. Changing an existing document is called _____ the document.
1) Creating
2) Editing
3) Modifying
4) Adjusting
5) None of these

24. Computers use the _____ number system to store data and perform calculations.
1) Decimal
2) Hexadecimal
3) Octal
4) Binary
5) None of these

25. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage?
1) GB
2) KB
3) MB
4) TB
5) None of these

26. The _____ key will launch the start buttons.
1) Esc
2) Shift
3) Windows
4) Shortcut
5) None of these

27. _____is the process of finding errors in software code.
1) Compiling
2) Testing
3) Running
4) Debugging
5) None of these

28. To move to the beginning of a line of text, press the _____ key.
1) Home
2) A
3) Page-up
4) Enter
5) None of these

29. Virtual memory is_____
1) Memory on the hard disk that the CPU uses as an extended RAM
2) RAM
3) Only necessary if you do not have any RAM in your computer
4) A back up device for floppy disks
5) None of these

30. A _____ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
1) Syntax
2) Programming structure
3) Programming language
4) Logic chart
5) None of these

31. When sending an e-mail, the _____ line describes the contents of the message.
1) to
2) subject
3) contents
4) CC
5) None of these

32. The _____ tells the computer how to use its components.
1) Utility
2) Network
3) Operating system
4) Application program
5) None of these

33. Which grouping do you work with when formatting text in word?
1) Tables, paragraphs and indexes
2) Paragraphs, indexes and sections
3) Characters, sections and paragraphs
4) Indexes, characters and tables
5) None of these

34. What is backup?
1) Adding more components to your network
2) Protecting data by copying it from the original source to a different destination
3) Filtering old data from the new data
4) Accessing data on tape
5) None of these

35. Network components are connected to the same cable in the _____ topology.
1) Star
2) Ring
3) Bus
4) Mesh
5) Mixed

36. This component is required to process data into information and consists of integrated circuits.
1) Hard disk
2) RAM
3) CPU
4) ROM
5) None of these

37. One advantage of dial-up-internet access is ___
1) It utilises broadband technology
2) It utilizes existing telephone service
3) It uses a router for security
4) Modem speeds are very fast
5) None of these

38. What is the term for unsolicited e-mail?
1) News group
2) Use net
3) Backbone
4) Flaming
5) Spam

39. Two or more computers connected to each other of sharing information form a _____
1) Network
2) Router
3) Server
4) Tunnel
5) Pipeline

40. Computers that are portable and convenient for users who travel are known as _____
1) Super computers
2) Lap tops
3) Mini computers
4) File servers
5) None of these

41. A computer checks the _____ of user names and passwords for a match before granting access.
1) Website
2) Network
3) Backup file
4) Data base
5) None of these

42. Office LANs that are spread geographically apart on a large scale can be connected using a corporate _____
1) CAN
2) LAN
3) DAN
4) WAN
5) TAN

43. The code for a Web page is written using _____
1) A fifth generation language
2) Win Zip
3) Peripherals
4) Hypertext Markup Language
5) URL

44. What is the process of copying software programs from secondary storage media to the hard disk called?
1) Configuration
2) Download
3) Storage
4) Upload
5) Installation

45. Small application programs that run on a web page and may ensure a form is completed properly or provide animation are known as _____
1) Flash
2) Spiders
3) Cookies
4) Applets
5) Sparks

46. The first computers were programmed using _____
1) Assembly language
2) Machine language
3) Source code
4) Object code
5) Spaghetti code

47. Which process checks to ensure the components of the computer and operating are connected properly?
1) Booting
2) Processing
3) Saving
4) Editing
5) None of these

48. In a relational database, this is a data structure that organizes the information about a single topic into rows and columns.
1) Block
2) Record
3) Tuple
4) Table
5) Command line interface

49. How can the user determine what programs are available on a computer?
1) Checking the hard disk properties
2) Viewing the installed programs during the booting process
3) Checking the operating system for a list of installed programs.
4) Checking the existing files saved on the disk
5) None of these

50. When we run a program in HTML coding _____ is used as backend and ____ works as front-end.
1) Notepad - Internet-Explorer
2) Notepad - Msn-messenger
3) MS-Word - Internet Explorer
4) Both (1) and (2)
5) None of these

ANSWERS:

1)3 2)3 3)1 4)1 5)4 6)3 7)3 8)5 9)3 10)2 11)2 12)4 13)2 14)4 15)2 16)3 17)1 18)1 19)2 20)1 21)2 22)4 23)2 24)4 25)4 26)3 27)4 28)1 29)2 30)3 31)2 32)3 33)1 34)2 35)2 36)3 37)2 38)5 39)1 40)2 41)4 42)4 43)4 44)5 45)4 46)2 47)1 48)4 49)4 50)1

RBI GR-II EXAM SOLVED PAPER

General Awareness

   (Exam Held On : 18-12-11)

1.Some time we see a reference of "Least Developed country" in the economic journals / papers etc. Which among the following is one of the parameters on the basis of which a country in economic parlance, is labelled "Least Developed"?
1) Frequent changes in monetary / fiscal policies
    2) No change in the Government in last ten years as general elections did not take place
    3) Low Per Capita income of a specified level and instability in agricultural / industrial production
    4) Huge losses due to natural disasters resulting in displacement of people in majority
    5) Scarcity of trained / skilled manpower in the country

2)    Which of the following statements about the Indian Economy in the last decade is Not Correct ?
    1) The economy of India is the fourth largest in the world with GDP of about 4 trillion US $ at Purchasing Power Parity (PPP)
    2) Agriculture which was a major concern for the growth of the economy is now growing at an average of 7% per annum
    3) A strong Balance Of Payment (BOP) position in recent years has resulted in a comfortable stock of the foreign exchange reserves
    4) India has emerged as a global leader in software and business process outsourcing
    5) Indian economy has shown a remarkable average GDP growth of 6.8% during last ten years

3.    Who among the following is very closely associated with the day today functioning of the Reserve Bank of India ?
    1) Dr. Subir Gokarn  
2) Mr. U.K. Sinha
    3) Mr. Kaushik Basu  
4) Mr. Narendra Jadhav
    5) None of these

4.    Census in India was conducted recently (2011). In the eyes of the economists and policy makers, India's demographics' are very much favourable to growth. Which of the following statements is NOT in conformity with the traditional demographic characteristics of India and its relation with growth ?
    1) India is a young country with low dependency ratio
    2) More and more Indian youth under the age of 30 are getting better health care and access to quality technical education
    3) The so called Middle class of India is happy as they have better housing and earning facilities
    4) More employment opportunities and resultant financial freedom have made young women folk to pursue single life and delay marriage
    5) Indian youth are now biggest consumers of luxurious goods, they spend discretionary income and enjoy the associated status

5.    Some policy makers and thinkers are of the opinion that the notorious Satyam Scandal of 2009 has proved a blessing in disguise for India, as it intensified the call in the country for:
    1) Stronger police force
    2) Faster legal proceeding and effective judiciary
    3) Greater Accounting transparency and Corporate Governance
    4) Better employer employee relationship and active participation of employees in managerial functions
    5) All of these

6.    Frequent changes in the cost of which of the following commodities at international levels, push inflation upwards ?
    1) Vegetables   
    2) Foodgrains
    3) Petroleum Products   
    4) Milk
    5) All of these

7.    Indian Parliament in the year 2005 passed Special Economic Zones Bill which gave birth to hundreds of SEZs in the country. How do these SEZs help in the growth of the Indian Economy ?
    1) SEZs attract significant foreign direct investment from overseas and MNCs
    2) SEZs give a far better price for land to the farmers and others who sell their land for the same
    3) Production in SEZs is done for local consumption only and is supposed to tame inflation in the country
    4) Banks in India are allowed to give loans to SEZs liberally as the interest rate on such loans is decided to be 5% higher than the normal interest rates
    5) All of these

8.    In economic terms, the total market value of all final goods and services produced in a country in a given year is known as
    1) GNI  
2) GDP
    3) Inflation  
4) PPP
    5) Wealth of a nation

9.    Which of the following is one of the indicators of Human Development Index (HDI) ?
    1) Life expectancy at birth
    2) Total cost of the agricultural land with a family
    3) Total area of the agricultural land with a family
    4) Availability of percennial source of water for irrigation
    5) Nature of employment, casual / permanent or semi-permanent

10.    Which of the following is one of the measures of economic growth of a country ?
    1) Volume of Direct Investment made by Foreign countries
    2) Number of companies listed on the Stock Exchanges
    3) Groww Domestic product of the nation
    4) Number of Foreign nationals working in a country
    5) All of these

11.    What is the contribution of Agricultural sector in total GDP of India ? About -
    1) 10%  
2) 24%
    3) 38%  
4) 40%
    5) 60%

12.    What is the contributio of Service Sector in total GDP of India ?
    1) 10%  
2) 14%
    3) 18%  
4) 26%
    5) None of these

13.    In India, the National Income is measured on the basis of :
    1) Flow of goods only
    2) Number of employed youth only
    3) Volume of tax collected per annum
    4) Earning of people working in PSUs and Govt, jobs
    5) All of these

14.    Which one of the following a measure of Fiscal Reforms, has Govt. of India adopted ?
    1) Brining down fiscal deficit to a particular level by an Act of Law
    2) Fixing higher rate of growth
    3) Allocaion of more funds to job oriented schemes
    4) Allocation of more funds to provide education to children who are 6-14 years of age
    5) None of these

15.    'Green House Gases' are responsible mainly for :
    1) Growth of Livestock population
    2) Volume of foreign trade
    3) Quality of agro products in a country
    4) Industrial Development of a nation
    5) Global warming

16.    Which of the following in India is implemented in all the districts of the contry for providing 100 days employment to those willing to do manual jobs in rural areas ?
    1) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
    2) Bharat Nirman
    3) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Gurantee Act
    4) Swarn Jayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana
    5) All of these

17.    Which of the following is a Social Development programme launched by the Govt. of India for school children ?
    1) Bharat Nirman    2) ASHA
    3) Kutir Jyoti   
    4) Mid Day Meal Scheme
    5) Aadhar Yojana

18.    Which of the following economic concept is categorized on the basis of Current Account or Capital Account or both ?
    1) Balance of Payment
    2) Value of the foodgrain stock of a country
    3) Gross National Product (GNP)
    4) Gross National Income (GNI)
    5) Total collection of Direct Taxes in a year

19.    Which of the following acts is / was introduced for the purpose of sustainable growth ?
    1) Water (PRevention and Control of Pollution) Act
    2) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act
    3) Foreign Exchange Management Act
    4) Banking Regulation Act
    5) Prevention of Money Laundering Act

20.    'IAEA' is an organization which functions in the area of .......
    1) Prevention of Money Laundering
    2) Control of Foreign Direct Investment
    3) Nuclear Energy
    4) World Trade
    5) Promoting International understanding among the nations

21.    As reported in newspapers, China has raised objection on India's presence in South China sea along with Vietnam. Both the nations are engaged in which of the following activities in the sea ?
    1) Fishing   
    2) Exploring Minerals
    3) Exploring Oilfields
    4) Disposal of electronic waster
    5) Disposal of nuclear waste

22.    Which of the following is the purpose of introducing 'Know Your Customer' norms by the banks ?
    1) To bring more and ore people under the banking net
    2) Identifying people who do not pay Income Tax
    3) To ensure that the money deposited in banks has come from genuine sources
    4) To ensure whether the money deposited in the bank is of an Indian or a foreign national
    5) None of these

23.    Which of the following organisations is established mainly to promote Micro, Small & Medium industrial sector in India ?
    1) NABARD 
 2) SIDBI
    3) IDBI Bank  
4) EXIM Bank
    5) None of these

24.    As reported in newspapers, the Market Borrowings of the Union Govt. have gone up in 2011-12 (upto September 2011). What is the main reason for the same ?
    1) Fixing very high target of growth
    2) Lower than budgeted collection of the revenue
    3) Lower than expected flow of foreign investment
    4) RBI's reluctance in giving fresh loans to the Govt. of India for developmental projects
    5) Consistent revision in the limit of the Ways and Means Advances given to the Govt. of India by the RBI

25.    "Core Industries Witness lower growth in last few months" - was the news in some major news papers recently. This means the performance of which of the following is NOT taken into accounts for the same ?
    1) Steel  
2) Cement
    3) Coal  
4) Gem & Jewellery
    5) Crude oil

26.    'Centre brings the curtain down on DEPB scheme' - was the news recently. What is the full form of the term DEPB ?
    1) Developmental Enterprises Promotion Board
    2) Duty Entitlement Pass Book
    3) Duty Enforcement & Promotion Bureau
    4) Development, Export & Prevention Bureau
    5) Deportation and Enforced Prevention Bureau

27.    India recently entered into an agreement to purchase LNG from some East Asian Nations. This is the part of India's initiative in the direction of :
    1) Look East Policy
    2) Switch over to LNG
    3) Business with Most Favoured Nations only
    4) Convention on Supplemental Compensation (CSC)
    5) New Business : New Partners Scheme

28.    As per recent reports the Coal Ministry of India has allocated certain coal blocks to four NTPC
Thermal Power Plants in four states. Which of the following states is NOT among these four states ?
    1) Uttar Pradesh  
2) Karnataka
    3) Orissa  
4) Madhya Pradesh
    5) Gujarat

29.    The Meet of the Finance Chiefs of G-7 countries was held in September 2011 in :
    1) London  
2) Tokyo
    3) Paris  
4) Marseille
    5) Vienna

30.    Which of the following organizations has given a warning to the nations of the world that there may be increased risk to global financial stability in the world ?
    1) World Bank
    2) World Trade Organisation
    3) Asian Development Bank
    4) International Monetary Fund
    5) United Nations Organisations

31.    Which of the folowing is considered Non Tax Revenue of the Govt. of India as projected in the Union Budget ?
    1) Income Tax  
2) Custom Duty
    3) Service Tax  
4) Corporate Tax
    5) Dividends & Profits

32.    What does the letter 'M' denote in the abbreviated term 'MRTP', an act which was applicable in India till recently ?
    1) Money  
2) Moral
    3) Minimum  
4) Monopolies
    5) Market

33.    Which of the following is a popular women's Empowerment Programme in India ?
    1) ASHA   
    2) Swabhiman
    3) Mid Day Meal Scheme
    4) Bharat Nirman
    5) Self Help Group

34.    We know that the Industrial sector plays an important role int he development of India. Which sector does not come under Industrial sector ?
    1) Mining  
2) Manufacturing
    3) Banking  
4) Utilities
    5) Construction

35.    Who among the following is one of the Deputy Governors of the RBI ?
    1) Shri U.K. Sinha  
2) Shri Ranjan Mathai
    3) Dr. Subir Gokarn  
4) Dr. M.S. Ahluwalia
    5) None of these

36.    What does the term 'AAY' denote which is the short form of a Social Scheme launched by the Govt. of India ?
    1) Antodaya A was Yojana
    2) Asian Awas Yojana
    3) Antodaya Anna Yojana
    4) Area Antodaya Yojana
    5) None of these

37.    Which of the following organizations of women in India will be arisen out of the confuence of three movements - labour movement, cooperative movement and women's movement based on Gandhian Philosophy ?
    1) TISCO 
 2) SHG
    3) AMUL  
4) SEWA
    5) Gramin Bank

38.    The Second Green Revolution being planned in India will be launched basically in Eastern / North Eastern states and will be based on production of :
    1) Sugarcane  
2) Jute
    3) Bamboo  
4) Vegetables
    5) Paddy

39.    Which of the following factors has now put a check on Migration of Agricultural Labourers from one place to another in India ?
    1) Lack of irrigation facilities
    2) Low productivity of land
    3) Single crop cultivation
    4) Higher wages and availability of employment
    5) Launch of MGNREGA and availability of employment opportunities locally

40.    Which of the following Acts helps a bank in its day to day acitivites ?
    1) Competition Act
    2) Negotiable Instruments Act
    3) Hindu Marriage Act
    4) Hindu Succession Act
    5) NRI Act

41.    Lack of access to financial serices is technically known as :
    1) financial instability
    2) financial inclusion
    3) financial stability
    4) financial exclusion
    5) Poverty

42.    Which of the following is NOT one of the major functions of the National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD) ?
    1) Acting as a regulator for cooperative banks and RRBs
    2) Extending assistance to the government and others in matters relating to rural development
    3) Providing refinance to lending institution in rural areas
    4) Acting as a coordinator in the operations of rural credit institutions
    5) Review o monetary & credit policy

43.    As we all know Banks in India are required to maintain a portion of their demand and time liabilities with the Reserve Bank of India. This portion is called :
    1) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
    2) Cash Reserve Ratio
    3) Bank Deposit
    4) Reverse Repo
    5) Government Securities

44.    Banks in their daily business face various kinds of risks. Which of the following is one such major risk ?
    1) Customer risk  
2) Reputation
    3) Goodwill risk  
4) Protection risk
    5) Operation risk

45.    Which of the following schemes was launched by the RBI in 2004 under which Govt. of India dated Securities / Treasury Bills could be issued to absorb surplus / durable liquidity ?
    1) RTGS   
    2) External Commercial Borrowing
    3) Market Stabilisation Scheme
    4) High value clearing scheme
    5) Pre-paid payment Instrument facility

46.    How much amount (in Rs. crores) was allocated for raising credits to the farmers in the Union Budget 2011-12?
    1) Rs. 475000 crores
    2) Rs. 575000 crores
    3) Rs. 675000 crores
    4) Rs. 775000 crores
    5) None of these

47.    What does the letter 'M' denote in the name 'MFI' as used in financial sector ?
    1) Mini 
 2) Monetary
    3) Micro 
 4) Mega
    5) Multiple

48.    The Govt. of India has created a women's Self Help Group Development Fund so that it can reduce their interest burden. What is the size of the fund ?
    1) Rs. 100 crores 
 2) Rs. 200 crores
    3) Rs. 250 crores  
3) Rs. 1400 crores
    5) Rs. 500 crores

49.    Which of the following is NOT a programme launched by the Govt. of India ?
    1) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
    2) Rastriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
    3) Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme
    4) National Rural Livelihood Mission
    5) Jeevan Anand Yojana

50.    Which of the following schemes is launched to provide prenatal and postnatal care to mother and child ?
    1) National Mission for Protein Supplements
    2) initiative on Vegetable Clusters
    3) Promotion of Nutri Cereals
    4) Jan Mitra yojana
    5) Janani Suraksha Yojana

51.    Which of the following statements is TRUE about International Monetary Fund (IMF) ?
    1) IMF provide Ways and Means Funds to member countries
    2) IMF is an agency of the Wrld Bank and is situated in Prague
    3) IMF makes all the rules and regulations in relation to the World Trade between the nations
    4) On becoming member of the IMF, countries get finance as temporary Balance of payment needs
    5) IMF is an organization floated by the members of NATO and caters to the need of those countries only

52.    The Bank rate is ........
    1) free to fluctuate according to the forces of demand and supply
    2) set by the RBI
    3) set by the RBI as directed by the Union Ministry of Finance
    4) set by RBI as advised by the Indian Banks Association
    5) set by Government of India on the recommendation of the Planning Commission

53.    Which of the folowing terms is used in the field of Banking & Finance
    1) Special Drawing Rights
    2) Affirmative Defence
    3) Civil Procedure
    4) Informed consent
    5) Question of Fact

54.    Which of the following is one of the Millennium Development Goals fexed by teh United Nations Organisations (UNO) ?
    1) Develop a global partnership for development
    2) Development new varieties of food grains which can ensure bumper crops
    3) To ensure that population does nto cincrease in Least Developed countries at an alarming rate
    4) Development measures to avet deadly Hurricanes / Tsunamies etc.
    5) Ensure that a Global Economy is developed where all nations can participate according to their strengths

55.    Which of the following countries recently got a new bailout package with the help of the Private Sector ?
    1) Germany 
 2) France
    3) USA  
4) Greece
    5) Russia

56.    By which of the following months GOods and Services Tax (GST) is to be implemented in India ?
    1) April 2015  
2) April 2014
    3) April 2013  
4) April 2012
    5) June 2012

57.    India recently completed negotiations with 16 countries for entering into a 'TIEA'. TIEA denotes which of the following ?
    1) Tax India Exchange Account
    2) Tax Information Exchange Agreement
    3) Total Information Exchange Accord
    4) Terminal Issue & Exchange Agreement
    5) Tax Issues & Export Agreements

58.    Famous Sardar Sarovar Dam is built across which of the following rives ?
    1) Ganga 
 2) Tapti
    3) Krishna  
4) Narmada
    5) Satluj

59.    Which of the following is NOT a Credit Rating Agency ?
    1) Credit Analysis & Research Ltd. (CARE)
    2) Lintas India Pvt. Ltd.
    3) Moody's Investors Service
    4) Standard & Poors
    5) Fitch Ratings

60.    Who among the following is the President (Chief) of the World Bank at present ?
    1) Peter Thomson   
    2) Goran Hadzic
    3) Robbert B Zoellick   
    4) Alan Greenspan
    5) Z. Zang

61.    Which of the following issues was / is an issue in World Trade Organisation on which India and few other countries were having all together different views than developed countries ?
    1) Subsidies and Govenment procurement policy
    2) G.M varities of certain crops
    3) Making Yuan as major trade currency
    4) Special treatment to NATO countries
    5) All of these

62.    Who among the following is the Head of the National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council, reconstituted recently ?
    1) Shri Isher Ahluwalia
    2) Dr. Kaushik Basu
    3) Shri V. Krishnamurthy
    4) Shri G.M. Rao
    5) None of these

63.    Which of the following nations is a member of G-8 ?
    1) New Zealand  
2) Libya
    3) China  
4) South Sudan
    5) Canada

64.    Dr. Manmohan Singh recently addressed UN General Assembly. Which of the following was the major issue which he emphasized in his speech ?
    1) Usefulness of multilateral lending agencies like IMF and World Bank in the present context
    2) WTO's efforts to introduce more and more G.M. Crops in the market
    3) Democratic Rights in Gulf Countries
    4) Mechanism to control oil prices in the world
    5) Need of strong Indo-China relations

65.    Which of the following is called "Robinhood Tax" and was in news during recent Summit of G-20 nations ?
    1) Excise Duty  
2) VAT
    3) Goods & Services Tax
    4) Tobin Tax  
5) None of these

66.    The Approach paper of 12th Five Year Plan got approval of the Union Cabinet recently. Which of the following is added for the first time in approach papers ?
    1) Growth Rate and mechanism to achieve it
    2) Corruption, Transparency and Governance
    3) Strenghtening of Agriculture sector
    4) Periodical Review of Monetary policy by the Govt. and not by RBI
    5) All of these

67.    A huge reserve of gas was explored recently in Northern Rashidpur Gas fields of ......
    1) Bhutan  
2) Bangladesh
    3) Sri Lanka  
4) Pakistan
    5) Afghanistan

68.    Which of the following agencies recently conducted a Pollution Survey of various cities across the world and found out that cities in Indian, Iran, Pakistan and Mongolia are the most polluted cities int he world ?
    1) World Bank   
    2) International Monetary Fund
    3) Asian Development Bank
    4) World Trade Organisation
    5) UNESCO

69.    The Central Banks of five developed countries recently came together and decided to provide unlimited dollar loans to banks in their areas. What was the purpose of the same ?
    1) To prevent China from becoming a bigger lender than the World Bank
    2) Ease growing tensions in the Euro zone's financial sector
    3) To reinstate USA's Credit rating at AAA level from the downgraded AA+ level
    4) To create an emergency pool of dollars to provide instant help to any country in case of need
    5) None of these

70.    Which of the following is a payment and settlement system used by the banks in India ?
    1) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
    2) Real Time Gross Settlement
    3) Forward Rate Agreements
    4) Central Depository Service
    5) Negotiated Dealing System

71.    'Federal Reserve' is the Central Bank of which of the following countries ?
    1) Russia  
2) Britian
    3) Canada  
4) Australia
    5) USA

72.    The Y.H. Malegam Committee which submitted its report a few months back was set up to report on further improvement of functioning of :
    1) Micro Finance Institutions
    2) Stock Exchanges in India
    3) Cooperative Banks
    4) Regional Rural Banks
    5) Foreign Banks having offices in India

73.    The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India recently got appointed as External Auditor of wich of the following organizations / agencies ?
    1) World Bank  
2) Bank of America
    3) UNESCO 
 4) IAEA & WIPO
    5) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

74.    'Special Drawing Rights' are the rights of countries provided by :
    1) World Bank  
2) IMF
    3) ADB 
 4) Federal Reserves
    5) None of these

75.    Indian citizens are allowed to invest overseats freedly except in :
    1) Sri Lanka  
2) UK
    3) Bangladesh  
4) Nepal
    5) Pakistan

76.    Who among the following represented India in first South Asia Forum Meeting held in September 2011 ?
    1) Dr. Manmohan Singh
    2) Shri Pranab Mukerjee
    3) Shri Kamal Nath
    4) Shri Anand Sharma
    5) Smt. Sonia Gandhi

77.    Which of the following schemes is launched by the Govt. of India to make Indian cities free from hutments and slums ?
    1) Indira Awas Yojana
    2) Rajiv Awas Joyana
    3) Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Yojana
    4) Central Rural Sanitation Programme

78.    WHich of the followign is the largest producer of Chemical ferilizers in the world ?
    1) India  
2) USA
    3) Mexico  
4) Russia
    5) China

79.    Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the programme launched by the Govt. of India for developing desert areas ?
    1) DRDA  
2) CAPART
    3) DDP  
4) IRDP
    5) DWCRA   

80.    Who among the following are the two economists who got Nobel Prize in 2011 for their contribution in Economics ?
    1) Thomas J. Sargent & Christopher A. Sims
    2) Peter A. Diamond & Thomas J. Sargent
    3) Christopher A. Sims & Dale T. Mortensen
    4) Olliver O. Wilamson & Amratya Sen
    5) None of these

Answers
    1) 3    2) 2    3) 1    4) 4    5) 1    6) 3      7) 1    8) 2    9) 1    10) 3    11) *    12) 5
    13) 4    14) 1    15) 5    16) 3    17) 4    18) 1        19) 3    20) 3    21) 3    22) 3    23) 2    24) 2             25) 4    26) 2    27) 1    28) 5    29) 4    30) 4        31) 5    32) 4    33) 5    34) 4    35) 3    36) 3        37) 4    38) 5    39) 5    40) 2    41) 4    42) 5        43) 2    44) 5    45) 3    46) 1    47) 3    48) 1        49) 5    50) 5    51) 4    52) 2    53) 1    54) 1  55) 4    56) 4    57) 2    58) 4    59) 2    60) 3  61) 1 
 62) 3    63) 5    64) 3    65) 5    66) 2  67) 2    68) *    69) 2    70) 2    71) 5    72) 1 73) 4    74) 2    75) 5    76) 4    77) 2    78) 5        79) 3    80) 1

IBPS PROBATIONARY OFFICERS / MANAGEMENT TRAINEES CWE 2012

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS)
IBPS House, Post Box No.8587, Kandivali (East), Mumbai - 400101
Published at sarkari-naukri(dot)blogspot(dot)com
IBPS, an autonomous body, has been authorised by the IBA and has received mandates from 19 Public Sector Banks to conduct the recruitment of Probationary Officers/ Management Trainees posts twice in a year for their requirements.

2nd Common Written Examination (CWE) will be conducted by the IBPS as a per-requisites for selection of personnel for Probationary Officers (PO)/ Management Trainees posts in the following 19 Public Sector Bank.

• Allahabad Banks / Andhra Bank/ Bank of Baroda/ Bank of India/ Bank of Maharashtra/ Canara Bank/ Central Bank of India/ Corporation Bank/ Dena Bank/ Indian Bank/ Indian Overseas Bank/ Oriental Bank of Commerce/ Punjab National Bank/ Punjab & Sind Bank/ Syndicate Bank/ Union Bank of India/ United Bank of India/ UCO Bank/ Vijaya Bank

Those will be successful in the Common Written Exam (CWE) will be given a scorecard (Like CAT exam of IIM) and may apply to any of the participating bank when they come up with their job vacancy and then these successful candidates have quote their personal details and their CWE scores.

 Each of the bank will issue individual recruitment notifications, details of  vacancies, eligibility criteria etc. separately.

Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee posts :

• Age : 20-30 years, age relaxation as per rules for SC/ST/OBC/ PWDs/ Ex.-SM
• Qualification : Graduate in any discipline.

How to Apply for CWE :  Candidates need to apply Online at IBS website from 09/03/2012 to 30/03/2012 only.

Important Dates :

1. Payment of Online Application Fees : 09/03/2012 to 30/03/2012 
2. Payment of Offline Application Fees : 12/03/2012 to 07/04/2012 
3. Start date of Online submission of Application : 09/03/2012
4. Last date for online submission of Application :  30/03/2012
5. Date of CWE Exam : 17/06/2012

Please visit http://www.ibps.in for all the details available and to submit the application online from 09/03/2012 onwards.

Malwa Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam., 2011

General English 

(Held on 18-12-2011)

 

Directions– (Q. 1-10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

In the modem times, few Indians stay put for a lifetime. They move from town to city and from city to suburb. They complete high school from a different state and ...(1)...college in a different one. They hop from a job in a particular region to a better job elsewhere. With each move, they make new friends, who become part of their ...(2)... lives at that time. For many of them, the summer is a special ...(3)... for new friendships. Today millions of Indians holiday abroad, and they go not only with an intent to see new ...(4)... but ...(5)... with the ...(6)... of meeting new people. No one really expects a casual ...(7)... to produce a close friend. But ...( 8) ...the beginning of a ...(9)... association is ...(10)…..

1. (A) like

(B) go

(C) move

(D) study

(E) attend

Ans : (E)

2. (A) usual

(B) daily

(C) common

(D) main

(E) society

Ans : (B)

3. (A) month

(B) seasonal

(C) era

(D) time

(E) week

Ans : (D)

4. (A) sights 

(B) area

(C) place 

(D) flowers

(E) palaces

Ans : (A)

5. (A) again 

(B) aim

(C) also 

(D) addition

(E) besides

Ans : (C)

6. (A) nope 

(B) ideal

(C) expect 

(D) visions

(E) ideas

Ans : (A)

7. (A) leave 

(B) trip

(C) experience 

(D) space

(E) holiday

Ans : (B)

8. (A) acceptably

(B) evidence

(C) surely

(D) immediately

(E) fastly

Ans : (C)

9. (A) lifelong 

(B) imaginative

(C) closely 

(D) friendship

(E) tourist

Ans : (A)

10. (A) accept 

(B) thought

(C) planned 

(D) plausibly

(E) possible

Ans : (E)

Directions– (Q. 11-20) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any .)

11. A great (A) / speaker can (B) / keep the audiencing (C) / spell bound. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (C)

12. You must (A) / concentration on (B) / the work allotted (C) / to you. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (B)

13. You can (A) / borrow this books (B) / if you promise (C) / to return them. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (B)

14. We spent (A) / the entire (B) / evening listen (C) / to songs. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (C)

15. The committee (A) / discussed many (B) / things in its (C) / annual meeting. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (C)

16. I writing him (A) / a letter to (B) / congratulate him (C) / on his success. (D) No Error (E)

Ans : (A)

17. Everybody knows (A) / regard the (B) / ill effects smoking has (C) / on health. (D) No Error (E)

Ans : (B)

18. Someone hit (A) / myself as (B) / I came (C) / into the room. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (B)

19. Somebody has (A) / broken the window (B) / by throwing (C) / many stone at it. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (D)

20. The picture (A) / is too heavy (B) / to be hang (C) / on the wall. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (C)

Directions– (Q. 21-25) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper

sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the questions given below:

(1) The poor Iamb was very scared to die and decided to trick the wolf.

(2) When the wolf began to play, the shepherd and the dogs heard the sound of the flute, and they came to rescue the lamb.

(3) It continued by saying that it had heard the wolf play the flute and had liked it very much.

(4) The lamb requested the wolf to grant it a last wish.

(5) Once, a wolf carried off a baby lamb from its flock in order to eat it.

(6) The wolf was pleased and decided to grant the lamb its last wish.

21. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence ?

(A) 5 

(B) 1

(C) 6 

(D) 4

(E) 2

Ans : (A)

22. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence ?

(A) 2 

(B) 1

(C) 4 

(D) 6

(E) 3

Ans : (C)

23. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence ?

(A) 1 

(B) 4

(C) 3 

(D) 5

(E) 2

Ans : (E)

24. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence ?

(A) 5 

(B) 2

(C) 4 

(D) 3

(E) 1

Ans : (E)

25. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence ?

(A) 1 

(B) 3

(C) 4 

(D) 2

(E) 6

Ans : (E)

Directions– (Q. 26-35) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may either be misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., All Correct' as your answer.

26. He used (A) all his skills to calm the agitated (B) union leddar (C) and bring him to the negotiation (D) table. All correct (E)

Ans : (C)

27. I had a toothache, (A) so I took an appointment (B) with a famous (C) dentistry. (D) All correct (E)

Ans : (D)

28. The city senter (A) is always (B) crowded (C) with tourists. (D) All correct (E)

Ans : (A)

29. You can borrow (A) this book (B) if you promise (C) to return (D) it. All correct (E)

Ans : (E)

30. It isn't safe (A) to swim (B) in a weather (C) like these. (D) All correct (E)

Ans : (D)

31. Patiense (A) and humility (B) have unlimited (C) power. (D) All correct. (E)

Ans : (A)

32. The delicious (A) lunch at the hotel satiated (B) my hungry (C) and desire. (D) All correct. (E)

Ans : (C)

33. I don't have enough (A) money to be able to afford (B) an expansive (C) holiday. (D) All correct (E)

Ans : (C)

34. I expected (A) your house (B) to be very big, but it's not biggest (C) than mine. (D) All correct (E)

Ans : (C)

35. You can ask your unkle (A) for anything (B) you want (C) as your birthday present. (D) All correct (E)

Ans : (A)

Directions– (Q. 36-50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once, there was a boy who was afraid of the dark. He thought that when it was dark his bedroom filled up with monsters. But there came a time when he was too old to be allowed to keep. sleeping with the light on. That first night he was paralysed with fear , and his mind was full of monsters. So much so, that he went over to his wardrobe to get a torch. But when he opened the wardrobe door he came face to face

with a monster, and he let out the loudest scream in the world. 

The monster was equally shocked. It grabbed its multicoloured hair and started crying. The monster cried for so long that the boy's shock and fear subsided. He calmed the monster as much as he could, and started talking to him, asking him why he was crying, and what he was doing there. The monster told him it lived in the wardrobe, but never went out, because it was afraid of the boy. When the boy asked for the reason, the monster told that the boy's face seemed to be the most horrible thing it had ever seen with eyes, ears and a nose. The boy felt exactly the same way about the monster, who had an enormous head full of hair.

Eventually, they realized that both of them had been afraid of the same thing: the unknown. To lose their fear of each other all they had to do was get to know each other. They applied the same strategy to the other things. Together they travelled the world, seeing lions, tigers, crocodiles and even dragons. It was the first time either of them had seen such creatures, but they made the effort to get to know them, and ended up dispelling their fear, and becoming friends. All kinds of creatures visited the boy's bedroom each night and, instead of fearing them he learnt to get to know them and befriend them.

Directions– (Q. 36-39) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 

36. HORRIBLE

(A) strange 

(B) offensive

(C) humorous 

(D) unholy

(E) appealing

Ans : (B)

37. DISPELLING

(A) eliminating

(B) ignoring

(C) assembling

(D) recalling

(E) accumulating

Ans : (A)

38. LOSE

(A) suffer 

(B) overcome

(C) gain 

(D) failure

(E) yield

Ans : (B)

39. CALMED

(A) relieved 

(B) freed 

(C) imposed 

(D) consoled

(E) attended

Ans : (D)

Directions– (Q. 40-42) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

40. ALLOWED

(A) granted 

(B) oppressed

(C) caged 

(D) punised

(E) denied

Ans : (E)

41. SUBSIDED

(A) decreased 

(B) fulfilled

(C) ended 

(D) enhanced

(E) created

Ans : (D)

42. ENORMOUS

(A) repulsive 

(B) strange

(C) sparse 

(D) tiny

(E) foul

Ans : (D)

43. What happened to the boy when he slept with the lights off ?

(A) He dreamt of monsters with multicoloured hair.

(B) The boy cried all night and couldn't sleep.

(C) The monsters filled up the boy's room.

(D) The monster screamed so loudly that it woke the boy.

(E) The monster in the boy's wardrobe went to his parents' room.

Ans : (C)

44. What were the boy and the monster afraid of ?

(A) They were both afraid of playing in the dark.

(B) The monster was afraid of the dark, while the boy was afraid of light.

(C) They were both afraid of the same thing-the unknown.

(D) They were both afraid of the boy's parents.

(E) They were both afraid of the dragons that ate children and monsters.

Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the story ? 

(A) The monster who was afraid of the creatures.

(B) Monsters are not friendly creatures.

(C) Why should we sleep in the dark.

(D) The boy and the creatures.

(E) The boy who was afraid of the dark.

Ans : (D)

46. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the boy as per the passage ?

(A) The boy slept with the lights switched off.

(B) The boy finally conquered his fear of the unknown.

(C) The boy had befriended the monster.

(D) The boy travelled the world and became friends with creatures .

(E) All are true.

Ans : (A)

47. Which of the following is TRUE about the monster as per the passage ?

(A) The monster mocked the boy.

(B) The monster was afraid of the boy's parents.

(C) The monster was envious of the boy.

(D) The monster had multicoloured hair.

(E) None is true.

Ans : (D)

48. Why did the monster start crying ?

(A) The boy had hurt the monster while opening the wadrobe.

(B) The monster was afraid of the boy as he looked strange to him.

(C) The monster had been locked inside the wadrobe.

(D) The monster thought that the boy would capture him.

(E) None of these.

Ans : (B)

49. Why was the boy afraid of sleeping in the dark ?

(A) He had terrible nightmares whenever he slept in the dark.

(B) He thought that the monster will eat him up in the dark.

(C) He thought that his hair would turn muticoloured in the dark.

(D) He thought that monsters filled up his bedroom in the dark.

(E) None of these.

Ans : (D)

50. Why did the creatures visit the boy every night ?

(A) The monster had called them to scare the boy.

(B) The creatures were afraid of staying in the jungle.

(C) The creatures had plotted to kill the monster in the boy's bedroom.

(D) The boy had befriended them.

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

Recruitment of 8500 Assistant (Clerk) vacancies in the State Bank of India

SBI Clerk Recruitment 2012 is that SBI had announced the 8500 Assistant Vacancies in the clerical cadre.This Advertisement in already a modification  in the ADVERTISEMENT NO. CRPD/CR/2011-12/05 Dated 27.12.2012

Here are some of the Details of 8500 Assistant vacancies in the State Bank of India.Candidates must read the Details below for applying Online for Assistant Vacancies in the SBI

 

Number of Vacancies:  8500 (Gen-3145, SC-2069, ST- 1337, OBC- 1949).The vacancies listed there also includes those vacancies that were advertised in the previous SBI Clerical Advt for SC/ST/OBC.

 

Pay scale: Rs 7200-400/3-8400-500/3-9900-600/4-12300-700/7-17200-1300/1-18500-800/1-19300.

 

Probation Period: 6 months.Probation period is the time period during which the performance of newly appointed Candidates will be evaluated.If the Performance of candidates is satisfactory after the Probation period then HE/SHE will be regularised there by ending his/her probation period.

 

Eligibility Criteria: Interested Candidates who wish to apply for 8500 Assistant vacancies in the SBI must posses the below mentioned eligibility criteria.

 

Age Limit (As on 01.12.2011): Min Age: 18 years and Max: 28 years.

 

Educational Qualifications (As on 01.12.2011): Candidates must posses the below mentioned educational Qualifications

Min 12th Std Pass with 60 % marks (For Gen Candidates)  and 55 % marks (For SC/ST/PWD candidates)

OR

A Graduate Degree in any discipline from a recognised University of India. (Percentage in Graduation Does not matter) 

 

Additional Qualifications: Apart from the academic qualification mentioned above candidates must also

• Have the ability to write and speak English Language fluently.
• Have the Knowledge of Local Language.

Application Fees: An application fee of Rs 350 (For Gen and OBC Candidates) and Rs 50 (For Others) will have to be deposited either by Online Mode Or By Offline mode in any Branch of State bank of India before the last date.

 

Procedure for Applying: Interested candidates who meet the above mentioned eligibility criteria can send their Applications Online by using the below mentioned procedure.

 

(I) Payment of Fees (Offline): Candidates who wish to apply with Offline Fee Payment method must fill their Online Application at www.statebankofindia.com. Candidates must carefully fill the Online Application form by following the On-Screen Instruction.After submitting the Online Application form, the system will generate a Fee Payment Challan.This Fee Payment must be printed and used for Payment of Application fee in the State bank of India.After the Payment of Application fees, the registration process is completed.

 

(II) Payment of Fees (Online): In this case, candidates are required to Submit their applications Online at the  www.statebankofindia.com. and deposit their Application fees Online by using VISA/Master Card/ Debit Card or Net Banking.After the Payment of Application fees the system will generate an e-receipt that must printed and preserved as a record.After Submitting the Online Application, the System will generate an Application form that must be printed and preserved till the final selection

 

Important Dates to Note:

Online Registration will start form : 5th March, 2012

Last date for Submitting the Online Applications: 26th March, 2012

Application Fees can be paid In Between: 7th March, 2012 to 31st March, 2012

Date of Written Exam:  27.05.2012 and 03.06.2012

Dates for Downloading the Call Letter:  After 12th May, 2012

 

Details: Candidates applying for the post of Assistants in State Bank of India must read the Detailed Advt, from the Link given below.

 

SBI Assistant Vacancy Detailed Advt. 2011-2012

SBI Defense Banking Advisor Recruitment

State Bank Of India, a nationalized Bank in India has given a recruitment 

notification for the recruitment Post of a Circle Defense Banking Advisor.  

The Candidates apply through online mode from 20-02-2012 to 24-03-2012.

The details of age limit, educational qualification, Hiring Process and other 

details of State Bank  Of India Recruitment are as follows.

Jobs Title : State Bank  Of India Recruitment 2012

Jobs Position: CDBA

Total Posts : 05 Posts

Hiring Process: Applicants will be short listed and called for an Interview. 
Selections would base purely on performance in Interview.

Age Limit:  Candidates’ age must be below 60 years. Cutoff date for 
determining age limit will be 01-02-2012.

Essential Requirement: Candidate must be an Army Officer retired in
 the rank of Brigadier or Major General.

Application Fee Details: Candidates must pay Rs. 500/- towards 
application Fee and Postal Charges. Fee must be paid in form of Cash 
Voucher to be downloaded for website www.statebankofindia.com or 
www.sbi.co.in. Deposit fee amount at any SBI branch and obtain 
receipt duly filled.

Important Dates:
Starting Date for Payment of Application Fee: 20.02.2012
Last Date for Payment of Application Fee: 17.03.2012
Last Date for Receipt of Application: 24.03.2012

How to Apply: Candidates must apply through prescribed format 
available at Bank’s website www.statebankofindia.com or www.sbi.co.in. 
Fill the application form with all essential details, attach photograph 
and attest signature.

Send it along with copies of all relevant documents or certificates to 
the following address, The General Manager, State Bank of India,
 Central Recruitment & Promotion Department, Tulsiani Chambers, 
1st Floor, West Wing, 212, Free Press Journal Marg, Nariman Point, 
Mumbai – 400 021 on or before 24-03-2012.

Click here for State Bank Of India Advt details

UNITED BANK OF INDIA PROBATIONARY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT

UNITED BANK OF INDIA
( A Govt. of India Undertaking)
11, Hemant Basu Sarani, Kolkata – 700001

United Bank of India, a leading Nationalised Public Sector Bank having one of the highest business productivity and profitability growth rate with all India presentation, invites applications from Indian citizens for following posts of Probationary Officer from those candidates who have valid score card 138  and 125 for SC/ST/OBC/PWD of CWE conducted by IBPS in 2011 for Probationary Officer/ Management Trainees :

• Probationary Officer  :  450 posts (UR-176, SC-90, ST-70, OBC-114) (PH-53) in JMG-I Scale Rs.14500-25700, Age : 21-30 years, Qualification : Graduation with 55% marks (50% for SC/ ST/ PWD)

Application Fee : Rs.200/- (Rs.50/- for SC/ST/PWD) to be deposited through CBS at any of the Branches of United Bank of India by means of a Payment challan OR (ii) Through NEFT at any Bank branch.

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Please visit http://www.unitedbankofindia.com/English/Recruitment.aspx  for all the details and application format.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE PRACTICE MCQs

Directions (Q. 1-9): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

1. -84 x 29 + 365 = ?
   
(1) 2436    

(2) 2801    

(3) 2801
   
(4) 2071    

(5) None of these

2. (21.69)² - √324 =?
(1) 440.4615    

(2) 425.4561    

(3) 452.4561

(4) 442.4651    

(5) None ofthese

3. (800 ÷ 64) x (1296 ÷ 36) = ?

(1) 420    

(2) 460    

(3) 500

(4) 540    

(5) None of these

4. (42 x 229)÷(9261)^1⁄3 =?

(1) 452    

(2) 448    

(3) 458

(4) 456    

(5) None of these

5. (35423 +7104 +41720)-(317 x 89)=?

(1) 28213    

(2) 84307    

(3) 50694

(4) 54096    

(5) None of these

6. (9% of 386) x (6.5% of 144) = ?

(1) 340.1664    

(2) 325.1664    

(3) 333.3333
   
(4) 328.0065    

(5) None of these

7 . 4+4.44+44.4+4.04+444=?
(1) 500.88    

(2) 577.2    

(3) 495.22

(4) 472.88    

(5) None of these

8. 3√? = (36x24)÷9

(1) 884736    

(2) 804036    

(3) 854734

(4) 814736    

(5) None of these

9. (43% of 2750)- (38% of 2990) = ?

(1) 49.3    

(2) 44.7    

(3) 43.6

(4) 46.3    

(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 10-13): What should come in place of question.mark (?) in the following number series?

10. 13 14 30 93 376 1885 ?

(1) 10818    

(2) 10316

(3) 11316

(4) 11318    

(5) None of these

11. 4 6 9 13.5 20.25 30.375.?

(1) 40.25    

(2) 45.5625    

(3) 42.7525

(4) 48.5625    

(5) None ofthese

12. 400  240  144  86.4  51. 84  31.1 04 ?

(1) 19.2466    

(2) 17.2244    

(3) 16.8824

(4) 18.6624    

(5) None of these

13. 9 4.5 4.5 6.75 13.5 33.75 ?

(1) 101.25    

(2) 103.75    

(3) 99.75

(4) 105.50    

(5) None of these

14. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs 625 is the same as the loss incurred after seIling the article for Rs 435. What is the cost price ofthe article?

(1) Rs 530    

(2) Rs 520    

(3) Rs 540

(4) Rs 550    

(5) None of these

15. A sum of Rs 817 is divided among A, Band C such that 'A' receives 25% more than 'B' and 'B' receives 25% less than 'C'. What is A's share in the amount?

(1) Rs228

(2) Rs247

(3) Rs285

(4) Rs 304    

(5) None of these

16. Ms Sujata invests 7% ie Rs 2170, of her monthly salary in mutual funds. Later she invests 18% of her monthly salary in recurring deposits. Also, she invests 6% of her salary on NSC's. What is the total annual amount in- vested by Ms Sujata? .
(1) Rs 1,25,320

(2) Rs 1,13,520    

(3) Rs,I,35,120

(4) Rs 1,15,320    

(5) None of these

17. What is 30% of 40% of 2/5 2500?
(1) 500    

(2) 400    

(3) 360

(4) 120    

(5) None of these

18. A, B, C and D are four consecutive even numbers respectively and their average is 65. What is the product of A and D?

(1) 3968    

(2) 4216    

(3) 4092

(4) 4352    

(5) None of these

19. The sum offive numbers is 555. The average of the first two numbers is 75 and the third number is liS. What is the average of the last two numbers?

(1) 145    

(2) 290    

(3) 265

(4) 150    

(5) None of these

20. A car covers the first 35 km of its journey in 45 minutes and the remaining 69 km in 75 minutes. What is the average speed of the car?

(1) 42 kmlhr    

(2) 50 km/hr    

(3) 52 kmlhr

(4) 60 km/hr    

(5) None of these

21. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'PRIDE' be arranged?
   
(1) 60    

(2) 120    

(3) 15

(4) 360    

(5) None of these

22. The ages of Samir and Tanuj are in the ratio of 8 : 15 years respectively. After 9 years the ratio of their ages will be II : 18. What is the difference in years between their ages?
(1) 24 years

(2) 21 years.

(3) 20 years

(4)  33 years

(5)  None of these

Directions (Q. 23-27): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
23. 724.998+24.048+ 14.954=?    
(1) 8  
(2) 13  
(3) 2  
(4) 10  
(5) 16
24. (848.999+274.052)÷ 3.0054=?    
(1) 940  
(2) 836  
(3) 184  
(4)298  
(5)374
25.  3√184900 =?            
(1) 56  
(2) 44  
(3) 67  
(4) 33  
(5) 21
26. 18.5% of 425 + 16.2% of 388 =?    
(1) 141  
(2) 224  
(3) 116  
(4) 183  
(5) 215

27. 18.345 x 19.068 x ? = 11538.93375    
(1) 46    

(2) 61    

(3) 27    

(4) 33    

(5) 55


Directions (Q. 28-32): In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. "

28. 529 841 961 1296 1681 1849 2209

(1) 1296        

(2) 841     

(3) 961

(4) 1681        

(5) None ofthese

29. 13   14  27  45  68  109   177
   
(1) 27        

(2) 109        

(3) 45

(4) 68        

(5) None of these

30. 14 22 34.5 55.5 87.25 13.875 209.125
   
(1) 55.5    

(2) 34.5    

(3) 135.875

(4) 87.25    

(5) None of these

31. 274 301 426 769 1498 2824 5026

(1) 301    

(2) 426    

(3) 79
   
(4) 2824    

(5) None of these

32. 4  28  160   990   6970   55832   502560

(1) 160    

(2) 990    

(3) 55832

(4) 6970    

(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 33-37): What s Would come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

33. 8^9.4 x 4^12.8 x 64^8.1 =16?

(1) 41.8    

(2) 16.2    

(3) 18.4

(4) 25.6    

(5) None of these

34. 12% of 840 x 0.25% of 148 =?

(1) 37.296

(2) 101.17    

(3) 68.432

(4) 97.046.    

(5) None of these

35. A shopkeeper sells 200 metres of cloth for Rs 9,000 at a profit of Rs 5 per metre. What is the cost price of 1 metre of cloth?
(1) Rs45    

(2) Rs40    

(3) Rs35

(4) Rs30    

(5) None of these

36. the area of a circle is.1386 sq cm. What is the circumfer- ence of the circle?

(1) 142cm    

(2) 160cm    

(3) 130cm

(4) 132 cm    

(5) None of these

37. In a college a total number of 27 professors are appointed for all the faculties; viz Arts, Commerce and Science. If , equal number of professors are appointed for each of the faculties, how many professors are assigned to each faculty?

(1) 9    

(2) 12    

(3) 6

(4) 3    

(5) None of these     

38. Sridhar invests Rs 3,750 in shares, which is 25% of his monthly income. What is his monthly income?
(1) Rs 12,000    

(2) Rs 15,000    

(3) Rs 10,000

(4) Rs 16,000    

(5) None of these

39. Find the average of the following setof scores.

302, 152, 132, 122, 112
   
(1) 184        

(2) 165    

(3) 152

(4) 176        

(5) None of these

40. A bus covers a distance of 172 kms in 4 hours. What is the speed of the bus?
(1) 52km1hr    

(2) 47km1hr    

(3) 43km1hr

(4) 38 kmIhr    

(5) None of these

41. The total number of students in a school is 4800, out of which 60% are girls. What is the total number of boys in this school?

(1) 1920    

(2) 1934    

(3) 1980

(4) 1910    

(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 42-43): Each question below is followed by two statements A and B. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.

Give answer (1) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statementit alone  not sufficient

Give answer 2) if the statement C alone is sufficien, to an we: the question, but the statement A alone is not sufficient.

Give answer 3) ifboth statements A and B together are needed to answer the question.

Give answer 4) if either the statementAalone or the statement B ,alone IS sufficient to-answer the question.

Give answer 5) if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and B together, but need even more data.

42. How many women can complete a piece of work in 15 days?

A . 12 women can complete the same piece of work in 20 days.

B. 10 men can complete rhe same piece of work in 12 days.
43. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a. on an amount of Rs 12,000/- deposited in a bank?
A. The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest is Rs 172.80.
B. The simple interest for two years is Rs2,880.
Directions (Q. 44-48): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
44. (4576+3286+5639)÷(712+415+212)=?

(1) 18    

(2) 22    

(3) 34

(4) 10    

(5) 46

45.  675.456+ 12.492 x 55.671 =?

(1) 971    

(2) 1071    

(3) 1171

(4) 1271

(5) 1371

46. (447.22) ²=?

(1) 200000    

(2) 210000    

(3) 220000
   
(4) 230000    

(5) 240000

47. 4374562 x 64 = ? x 7777
(1) 360    

(2) 3600    

(3) 36000

(4) 360000    

(5) 3600000

48. (872% of 659) ÷ 543 = ?

(1) 17    

(2) 11    

(3) 21
   
(4) 27    

(5) 31

Directions (Q. 49-53): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

49. 5 9 18 34 59 95 ?

(1) 272    

(2) 168    

(3) 116

(4) 148    

(5) 144

50. 1200 480 192 76.8 30.72 12.288 ?

(1) 4.9152    

(2) 5.8192    

(3) 6.7112

(4) 7.6132    

(5) 8.5172

51. 963 927 855 747 603 423  ?

(1) 209

(2) 208    

(3) 207

(4) 206    

(5) 205

52. 841 .961 1089 1225 1369 1521. ?

(1) 1581            

(2) 1681        

(3) 1781

(4) 1881            

(5) 1981

53. 18  20  44  138  560  2810 ?

(1) 16818        

(2) 16836        

(3) 16854
   
(4) 16872         

(5) 16890

Directions (Q. 54-58): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 

54. 74+.12x0.75-6 =?
   
(1) 72    

(2) 67    

(3) 62

(4) 77    

(5) None of these

55. 8888 + 848 + 88 - ? = 7337 + 737

(1) 1750    

(2) 1650    

(3) 1550

(4) 1450    

(5) None of these

56. 515.15-15.51-1.51-5.11-1.11=?

(1) 491.91

(2) 419.91    

(3) 499.19

(4) 411.19    

(5) None of these

57. (?) ² + (123) ² = (246)  ² - (99)  ² - 2462

(1) 184    

(2) 186     

(3) 182

(4) 180    

(5) None of these

58. 414 x? x7=127512

(1) 36    

(2) 40    

(3) 44

(4) 48    

(5) None of these

59. [(84) ² ÷28 x 12]÷24 =7 x ?

(1) 15    

(2) 17    

(3) 19

(4) 21    

(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 60-65): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.
60. 561204 x 58 =? x 55555
(1) 606
(2) 646 
(3) 556
(4) 716 5)586
61. 459.008 + 3.0056 x 88.862 =?
(1) 738
(2) 725 
(3) 695
(4) 752
(5) 666
62. (444%of531)÷972 =? 
(1) 4.5
(2) 0.5 
(3) 2.5  
(4) 8.5 5)6.5
63. (9321 +5406+ 1001)÷(498+929+660)=?
(1) 13.5
(2) 4.5 
(3) 16.5
(4) 7.5
(5) 10.5
64. 9654 /21 +7638 / 44 =?
   
(1) 633    

(2) 600    

(3) 643

(4) 621    

(5) 598
65. (621.52)²=?
(1) 386300
(2) 379300
(3) 398300
(4) 365300
(5) 356300

Directions (Q. 66-70): What SilUUili come in place of question mark ('?) in the following number series ?
66. 444 467 513 582 674 789 ?
(1) 950 
(2) 904  
(3) 927
(4) 881 
(5) 973
67. 23 25 53 163 657 3291 ?
(1) 16461
(2) 13169  
(3) 9877
(4) 23045 
(5) 19753
68. 3 13 65 585 7605 129285 ?
(1) 2456415 
(2) 2235675  
(3) 2980565
(4) 2711985 
(5) 2197g45
69. 1 16 81 256 625 1296 ?
(1) 4096 
(2) 2401  
(3) 1764
(4) 3136 
(5) 6561
70. 12 12 18 45 180 1170 ?
(1) 12285 
(2) 10530  
(3) 11700
(4) 12870 
(5) 7605

Directions (Q.71-80): What should come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions?
71 .4+4.44+0.4+44.04+444=?
(1) 497.24 
(2) 487.66  
(3) 496.88
(4) 469.88 
(5) None of these
72. [(130)²÷ 25 x 15] ÷ 30 =?
(1) 352 
(2) 314  
(3) 326
(4) 338 
(5) None of these
73. 38+16x0.8=?
(1) 43.2 
(2) 50.8  
(3) 44.8
(4) 1.9 
(5) None of these
74. (?)² +(65)² = (160)² -(90)² -7191
(1) 75 
(2) 77  
(3) 79
(4) 81 
(5) None of these
75. 398 x ? x 7 = 47362
(1) 15 
(2) 13  
(3) 17
(4) 19 
(5) None of these
76. 1485x?=594
(1) 2/5
(2) 3/4
(3) 3/5
(4) 5/6
(5) None of these
77. 2116+692-?=1111
(1) 1667  
(2) 1677  
(3) 1687
(4) 1697  
(5) None of these
78. 6.896 + 3.753 - 2.005 + 1.004 =?
(1) 9.486  
(2) 9.648  
(3) 9.864
(4) 9.846  
(5) None of these
79. (6.5% of 375)-(0.85% of 230)=?
(1) 23.42  
(2) 24.24  
(3) 21.64
(4) 25.76  
(5) None of these
80. (13)⁵⁴ x (13)^-51 =.?
(1) 2197     .  
(2) 39  
(3) 169
(4) 130    
(5) None of these
81. 93. 2/7 x 5/6 x 3/8 x ? = 790

(1) 8848

(2) 8246

(3) 8484

(4) 8868
(5) None of these
82. 968 x 445 ÷ ?=17230.4
(1) 60 

(2) 40 

(3) 25 

(4) 35 

(5) None of these

83. (0.05 x 6.25) ÷ 2.5 =?

(1) 0.105

(2) 0.95

(3) 0.115

(4) 1.25 5)

(5) None of these

84. (41) ² + (38) ²X (0.15) ² =?

(1) 3125.0225    

(2) 1713.49

(3) 3125.15

(4) 59204.0225    

(5) None of these
85. In an election between two candidates, one got 72% of the total valid votes. 25% of the total votes are invalid. If the total votes are 8200, what is the number of valid votes the other person got?

(1) 1835    

(2) 1722

(3) 2050
   
(4) 4428    

(5) None of these

86. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'WEDDING' be arranged?

(1) 5040    

(2) 2500

(3) 2520

(4) 5000    

(5) Noneofthese

87. Milind takes as much time in running 15 metres as a car takes in covering 40 metres. What will be the distance covered by Milind during the time the car covers 2 km?
   
(1) 1000 metres    

(2) 600 metres    

(3) 650 metres

(4) 750 metres    

(5) None of these

88. Four milkmen rented a pasture. A grazed 15 cows for 4 months, B grazed lQ cows for 2 months, C grazed 18 cows for 6  months, and D grazed 16 cows for 5 months. If A's share of rent is Rs 1,020, whatis C's share of rent?

(1) Rs 1,836    

(2) Rs 1,360    

(3) Rs816

(4) Cannot be determined

 (5) None of these

Directions (Q. 89-92): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions given below. Out of 6500 students from the Arts wing of a college, 21 % of the total number of students have majored only in Psychology. 12% of the total number of students have majored only in English Literature, and 15% of the total number of students have majored only in Politics. 7% of the total number of students have majored only in Philosophy, and 10% of the total number of students have majored only in History. 8% of the total number of students have majored in both 'Psychology and Philosophy. 4% of the total number of students have majored in History as well as Politics, and 11 % of the total number of students have majored in English Literature as well as Politics. 9% of the total number of students have majored in Psychology and English Li .rature, and 3% of the total number of students have majored in History and Philosophy.

89.What is the ratio of the number of students majoring in Philosophy to the number of students majoring only in Psychology ?

(1) 4:5

(2) 5:6

(3) 6:7

(4) 7:8

(5) None of these

90. Students majoring in History are approximately what percent of the total number of students majoring in Politics?

(1) 48    

(2) 61    

(3) 52    

(4) 57    

(5) 45

91.How many students have majored only in Politics?

(1) 650

(2) 975    

(3) 780

(4) 455

(5) None of these

92. What is thetotal number of students majoring in English Literature?

(1) 780

(2) 1495

(3) 1300

(4) 2050

(5) None of these

93. Lowest number of students have majored in which subject?

(1) History    

(2) Philosophy    

(3) Politics

(4) English Literature     

(5) Psychology
94. 9654 /21 +7638 / 44 =?
  
(1) 633   

(2) 600     

(3) 643

(4) 621   

(5) 598

95. (4.36) 2 x 66.5 - 371 = ?

(1) 902     

(2) 893     

(3) 871

(4) 888     .

(5) 880

Directions (Q. 96-100): What approximate value should come in place ofthe question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
96. 3√7469 x√ 668 =?

(1) 300    

(2) 350    
                                              
(3) 505

(4) 425    

(5) 575

97. 2.5 x 0.08 ÷ (1.9)² =?

(1) 1.5    

(2) 0.8    

(3) 0.010

(4) 0.06    

(5) 2.1
Directions (Q. 98-99): Each qu stion below is followed by two statements A and B. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.
Give answer I) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the Statement A alone is not sufficient
Give answer 2) if the statement C alone is sufficien, to an we: the question, but the statement A alone is not sufficient.
Give answer 3) ifboth statements A and B together are needed to answer the question. Give answer 4) if either the statement Aalone or the statement B alone IS sufficient to-answer the question. Give answer 5) if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and 8 together, but need even more data.

98. How many women can complete a piece of work in 15 days?
A. 12 women can comnlete the same piece of work in 20 days.
B. 10 men can complete rhe same piece of work in 12 days.

99.  What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a. on an amount of Rs 12,000/- deposited in a bank? 

A. The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest is Rs 172.80.
B. The simple interest for two years is Rs2,880.
100. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'WEDDING' be arranged?
(1) 5040  
(2) 2500
(3) 2520
(4) 5000  
(5) Noneofthe

Answer
1.	(4)	26.	(2)	51.	(2)	76.	(1)
2.	(3)	27.	(5)	52.	(4)	77.	(4)
3.	(5)	28.	(2)	53.	(4)	78.	(2)
4.	(3)	29.	(1)	54.	(1)	79.	(2)
5.	(5)	30.	(4)	55.	(1)	80.	(5)
6.	(2)	31.	(1)	56.	(3)	81.	(1)
7.	(2)	32.	(3)	57.	(3)	82.	(3)
8.	(1)	33.	(5)	58.	(3)	83.	(5)
9.	(1)	34.	(4)	59.	(5)	84.	(2)
10.	(4)	35.	(4)	60.	(5)	85.	(4)
11.	(3)	36.	(4)	61.	(5)	86.	(5)
12.	(2)	37.	(1)	62.	(2)	87.	(1)
13.	(4)	38.	(2)	63.	(3)	88.	(3)
14.	(1)	39.	(4)	64.	(4)	89.	(4)
15.	(1)	40.	(4)	65.	(1)	90.	(2)
16.	(4)	41.	(5	66.	(3)	91.	(5)
17.	(4)	42.	(3)	67.	(5)	92.	(1)
18.	(4)	43.	(5)	68.	(4)	93.	(3)
19.	(2)	44.	(3)	69.	(2)	94.	(5)
20.	(3)	45.	(1)	70.	(1)	95.	(4)
21.	(2)	46.	(2)	71.	(3)	96.	(1)
22.	(3)	47.	(4)	72.	(4)	97.	(1)
23.	(4)	48.	(5)	73.	(2)	98.	(3)
24.	(3)	49.	(1)	74.	(5)	99.	(5)
25.	(5)	50.	(3)	75.	(1)	100.	(5)