Malwa Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2012

General English

(Exam Held on 8-1-2012)

Directions—(Q. 1 to 11) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

1. The martyrdom (A) / about Sardar Bhagat (B) / Singh created (C) / a stir. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

2. He is well (A) / known in Hindi, (B) / Urdu and (C) / Arabic languages. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

3. Ruskin had postulated (A) / the concept of ‘social affection’ (B) / as the founding principle (C) / of a humane economy. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

4. His only motive (A) / was to finding (B) / the truth and (C) / follow it. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

5. On the surfacing (A) / she presented herself (B) / as someone in supreme (C) / control of her life. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

6. Motivating the youth of (A) / the nation is (B) / the central theme (C) / of the book. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

7. He have faced (A) / failures and (B) / disappointments without (C) / feeling defeated. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

8. Since time immemorial (A) /, India’s spiritual (B) / wisdom has being (C) / its strength. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

9. Courage is an (A) / inner fortress which (B) / no enemy can (C) / ever destruction. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

10. Boldness has (A) / genius, power and (B) / magic in it along (C) / with infinite possibilities. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

11. Rahul found college (A) / life most interesting (B) / and energetic than (C) / his schools days. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 12–22) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may either be misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

12. The beach, (A) trees and the breese (B) created a feeling (C) of extra-ordinary (D) calm. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

13. No mattar (A) how tired he feels, he never (B) misses the evening (C) walk post dinner. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

14. Either (A) kings and ordinary (B) men, studied (C) together (D) in gurukuls. All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

15. The great (A) leader called (B) upon his people (C) to rise to their highest capabilities. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

16. From the ashes (A) of the devastating (B) war, Germany has emerged (C) as a powerful (D) nation. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

17. The peon (A) has met (B) with an accident (C) while acrossing (D) the road. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

18. He was a relentless (A) crusader against (B) feudalism and colonalsm (C) in the pre independence (D) era. All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

19. After several (A) years of political turmoil, (B) the state has finally (C) gained stable. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

20. Fake (A) and fabricated (B) cases were publicised to turnish (C) his political image. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

21. Youth (A) has to come foreword (B) to reform (C) the social structure. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

22. He laiy (A) in the bed to rest, (B) and within (C) no time dozed (D) off to sleep. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 23 to 32) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Parenting is a difficult job. A creative and imaginative …(23)… is a great …(24)… to the …(25)… parent. This is precisely the reason why a repressive society produces few creative and imaginative people. As not so ordinary children, the weaker ones are …(26)…, and the hardier ones often over react in a way that turns them into …(27)… or actual criminals if they happen to live in a squalid environment. As adults, most of us do not care to …(28)… the kinetic qualities of children. Just like we want them to stop wriggling or jumping or sloshing through puddles or dangling from fence posts, in the same way we …(29)… agile minds and mercurial temperaments. We don’t like to …(30)… silly questions, to respond to anxieties that take fantasy form, or to acknowledge the …(31)… life of the child’s …(32)….

23. (A) spouse
(B) sibling
(C) one
(D) people
(E) child
Ans : (E)

24. (A) bore
(B) challenges
(C) burden
(D) problematic
(E) companion
Ans : (C)

25. (A) ordinary
(B) surrogate
(C) step
(D) willing
(E) tension
Ans : (A)

26. (A) accepted
(B) tolerated
(C) crushed
(D) patented
(E) placed
Ans : (C)

27. (A) delinquents
(B) mad
(C) angry
(D) addictive
(E) useless
Ans : (A)

28. (A) peace
(B) hooking
(C) tolerant
(D) explore
(E) accessible
Ans : (D)

29. (A) resent
(B) accept
(C) revolt
(D) acknowledge
(E) punished
Ans : (D)

30. (A) ask
(B) manage
(C) participate
(D) encouraged
(E) answer
Ans : (E)

31. (A) deeper
(B) inside
(C) hide
(D) visible
(E) fake
Ans : (B)

32. (A) worldly
(B) spirit
(C) selve
(D) personalities
(E) gist
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 33–37) Rearrange the following SIX sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the questions given below :
(1) Given a choice, all these parents would love to see these little slogging children enjoy their childhood at home or at school.
(2) Struck with acute poverty, many poor families almost force their children to work and earn.
(3) Its roots may be traced to the prevailing poverty in these continents.
(4) In these poverty stricken families, every member has to work for his/her own food.
(5) Child Labour is a phenomenon prevalent mostly in developing countries of Asia and Africa.
(6) With the cumulative earnings of all the members of the family, the members of the family are able to make their two ends meet.

33. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence ?
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

34. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence ?
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 2
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence ?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 6
(E) 1
Ans : (A)

36. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence ?
(A) 6
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 3
(E) 1
Ans : (C)

37. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 2
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 38–40) Pick out the most effective word from the given words that describes the people/phenomenon being referred to—

38. Smith has no money. He has declared himself wealthless. He will be called a—
(A) Miser
(B) Honorary
(C) Pauper
(D) Mercenary
(E) Beggar
Ans : (C)

39. Someone works for welfare of women and strongly supports the rights of women will be called—
(A) Effiminate
(B) Egotist
(C) Eccentric
(D) Feminist
(E) Self-centered
Ans : (D)

40. People who do not know how to read or write are—
(A) Illiterate
(B) Uneducated
(C) Unaware
(D) Illegible
(E) Under developed
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The chasm between India’s flourishing cities and bleak rural hinterland is narrowing. Spread across 6,50,000 villages, with an average population of 1,100, rural villagers were long imagined by city dwellers as primitive, impoverished and irrelevant, something to drive past on the way to something else. A new prosperity is sprouting in rural India, it may be a trickle, but India’s urban prosperity is flowing to the countryside. The transformation of such villages will also add fuel to the debate over democracy’s influence on economic development. India has been faulted for growing more lethargically than China, in part because of its democracy. But the new rural prosperity suggests that the high cost of democracy also has a hidden benefit. By compelling each politician to deliver results to his own narrow constituency, democracy spreads economic change more thinly. In China, a widening income gap between town and country is worrying officials.

In India, what is changing is the nature of the rich-poor divide. That divide was once synonymous with the urban-rural split. The only way to get rich was to live in town, and to reside in the country was to be bound to interminable poverty. Across India, most of the workers are farmers or landless labourers. India’s riches to extend to them, economists say, will require a revolution in farm productivity; drastic improvements in infrastructure like roads, irrigation and lectricity; and the proliferation of labour-intensive factories to absorb surplus labour from the farms. None seems an immediate likelihood. But, being rural is no longer a life sentence of poverty. The government has invested billions of dollars in development, including road building and rural electrification, and has forced banks to lend to farmers. Hearty monsoons have fattened farmers’ profits. For rich and poor farmers alike, education is within closer reach. Ten years ago, the area that had three schools; now has five. And ever more students travel to small towns or cities to pursue higher education after high school. Widening educational access has helped farmers’ children to get city jobs and send money home.

Directions—(Q. 41–43) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

41. Thinly
(A) evenly
(B) blindly
(C) heterogeneously
(D) circumstantially
(E) vaguely
Ans : (A)

42. Fattened
(A) unhealthy
(B) heightened
(C) depleted
(D) effected
(E) disowned
Ans : (B)

43. Interminable
(A) regular
(B) limited
(C) huge
(D) finite
(E) everlasting
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 44 and 45) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

44. Primitive
(A) spirit
(B) waste
(C) modern
(D) folk
(E) country
Ans : (C)

45. Transformation
(A) secret
(B) addition
(C) development
(D) stagnation
(E) elaboration
Ans : (D)

46. Which of the following is TRUE as per the passage ?
(A) Indian economy has not progressed at all in the last few years
(B) Domocracy is the cause behind the Indian rural population becoming rich, while staying in the rural areas
(C) India being a democratic nation is a huge setback to the development of the Indian economy
(D) The economists in China are in favour of introducing a democratic set up in China
(E) None is true
Ans : (B)

47. Which of the following is NOT TRUE as per the passage ?
(A) The access to education has improved in the rural areas of India
(B) The rural people and rural areas were looked down upon by city dwellers
(C) Democracy leads to a homogenous distribution of economic prosperity
(D) The Chinese economy is being remodeled as per the Indian economy
(E) All are true
Ans : (D)

48. Which of the following suggests the correct meaning of the phrase urban-rural split, as used in the passage ?
(A) The poor live in urban areas, the rich live in rural areas
(B) The poor live in rural areas, the rich live in urban areas
(C) The urban poor exploit the rural poor
(D) The urban rich exploit the rural rich
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

49. Which of the following describes difference between India and China as quoted in the passage ?
(A) India is a rich nation, China is a poor one
(B) India has villages, China has no villages
(C) Indian economy has transformed, Chinese economy is stagnant
(D) While India is a democratic nation, China is not
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

50. Which of the following is not a measure (as suggested by economists) to be taken to extend India’s riches to the landless labourers ?
(A) Revolution in farm productivity
(B) Improvements in irrigation
(C) Proliferation of labour intensive factories
(D) Drastic improvements in infrastructure like roads and electricity
(E) Easy acess to loans
Ans : (E)

Allahabad Bank Clerk (Second Shift) Exam., 2011

General English 

(Exam Held on 8-5-2011)

Directions—(Q. 1–12) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Long ago, the country of Gandhara was ruled by a just and good king Vidyadhara. His subjects were very happy, but as the king grew older, everyone grew more and more worried because the king did not have any children who could take over the kingdom after him. The king was an avid gardener. He spent a lot of time tending to his garden, planting the finest flowers, fruit trees and vegetables. One day, after he finished working in his garden, he proclaimed, ‘I will distribute some seeds to all the children in the kingdom. The one who grows the biggest, healthiest plant within three months will become the prince or the princess.’

The next day there was a long queue of anxious parents and children outside the palace. Everyone was eager to get a seed and grow the best plant. Pingala, a poor farmer’s son, was among the children. Like the king, he too was fond of gardening and grew beautiful plants in his backyard. He took the seed from the king and planted it in a pot with great care. Some weeks passed and he plied it with water and manure, but the plant did not appear. Pingala tried changing the soil and transferred the seed to another pot, but even by the end of three months, nothing appeared.

At last the day came when all the children had to go to the king to show the plant they had grown. They went walking to the palace dressed in their best, holding beautiful plants in their hands. Only Pingala stood sadly, watching them go by. Pingala’s father had watched his son working hard with the seed and felt sorry for him. ‘Why don’t you go to the king with your empty pot ?’ he suggested. ‘At least he will know you tried your best.’ So Pingala too wore his best suit and joined the others outside the palace, holding his empty pot in his hand and ignoring the laughter around him. Soon the king arrived and began his inspection. The pots held flowers of different shades, beautiful and healthy, but the king did not look happy. At the end of the queue stood Pingala, and when the king reached him, he stopped in surprise.

‘My son, why have you come with an empty pot ? Could you not grow anything ?’ Pingala looked down and said, ‘Forgive me, your highness. I tried my best, I gave it the best soil and manure I had, but the plant would
not grow.’

Now the king’s face broke into a smile. He enveloped Pingala in his arms and announced, ‘This boy truly deserves to be crowned the prince ! I had given everyone roasted seeds, which would never grow. I wanted to see which child was the most honest one, and would admit he or she would not be able to grow anything. Only this young boy told the truth. I am sure he will rule this kingdom one day with truth and honesty.’

And indeed that was what happened. When the king grew old and died, Pingala, who had learnt everything from him, came to the throne and ruled Gandhara justly for many years.

1. Why did the king distribute seeds to all children in his kingdom ?
(A) It was part of one of the rituals of the kingdom
(B) He wanted to see who could grow the tallest plant
(C) He finished all his work in the garden and had extra seeds left
(D) He wanted to inculcate the hobby of gardening among the children of his kingdom
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

2. Why was Pingala holding an empty pot in his hands ?
(1) He could not grow the seed the king gave him.
(2) His plant did not survive after the second month.
(3) He wanted to be different from the other children.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) Only (1) and (3)
Ans : (A)

3. Why did Pingala’s father encourage him to go to the king with an empty pot ?
(1) He wanted the king to know that his son tried his best to grow the plant.
(2) He wanted his son to be noticed by the king.
(3) He wanted the king to realise that he had cheated his son.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following word is most opposite to the word Admit printed in bold in the above story ?
(A) Reject
(B) Deny
(C) Dismiss
(D) Disclose
(E) Confess
Ans : (B)

5. Which of the following sentence/s is true of Pingala’s father ?
(1) He was a farmer by profession.
(2) He was very encouraging towards his son.
(3) He was a poor man.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (2)
(D) Only (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (E)

6. The king crowned Pingala heir to the kingdom because—
(A) he enjoyed gardening
(B) he was taken aback by his plant
(C) he was the only child to have admitted the truth
(D) he had the most beautiful and healthy plant
(E) he was in awe of his upbringing
Ans : (C)

7. What kind of seeds did the king give to the children ?
(1) The finest seeds he had.
(2) Roasted seeds that would never sprout.
(3) Vegetable and fruit seeds.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following statements is false according to the passage ?
(A) Pingala was fond of gardening just like the king
(B) The king did not have any child who could take over the kingdom
(C) Pingala took great care of the seed the king gave him
(D) The seeds that the king gave to the children grew into beautiful and healthy plants
(E) The children were given three months to complete their assignment
Ans : (D)

9. Why did the king call for an inspection of the plants after three months ?
(A) He wanted to see which plant had the most beautiful flower
(B) He wanted to witness the joy on the children’s faces
(C) He wanted to see which plant would be the most useful to him
(D) He wanted to check the children’s gardening skills
(E) He wanted to see which child was honest and would admit the truth
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 10–12) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

10. Avid
(A) Bright
(B) Intelligent
(C) Enthusiastic
(D) Lazy
(E) Amateur
Ans : (B)

11. Anxious
(A) Depressed
(B) Hopeless
(C) Carefree
(D) Doubtful
(E) Nervous
Ans : (E)

12. Finest
(A) Best
(B) Thinnest
(C) Ordinary
(D) Common
(E) Cheapest
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 13–17) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘no correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

13. I am very keen to to learned about the town’s history.
(A) to learns
(B) to learn
(C) at learning
(D) to have learn
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

14. For the last three weeks the shop have been closed.
(A) is being closed
(B) has been closed
(C) are closed
(D) to have closed
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

15. If you had spoken to the receptionist, she would tell you where I was—
(A) would told you
(B) will tell you
(C) would have told you
(D) would be telling you
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

16. Many forests are facing the danger to be destroyed.
(A) of being
(B) to have been
(C) to being
(D) having being
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

17. The Science teacher seem to think that all the students in her class were lazy.
(A) to seem to think
(B) seem to be thinking
(C) seem to have thought
(D) seemed to think
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 18–22) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is ‘no error’, the answer is (E) i.e. ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

18. We had to (A) / hurry to the airport (B) / as the flight departures (C) / from Mumbai at 6 : 30 pm. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

19. If you had (A) / watered the plant regularly, (B) / it would not (C) / have died. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

20. I wonder if (A) / my colleague would (B) / like it to go to (C) / the conference with me. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

21. We should focus (A) / our attention at (B) / the roads where accidents (C) / have already occurred. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

22. My friends are (A) / not allowed to (B) / go out without (C) / their parents’ consenting. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 23–27) In each question below, four words printed in bold are given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

23. The tape (A) recordings contained (B) prove (C) of his involvement in the crime. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

24. Despite (A) all the research, (B) there is still no cure (C) for the desease. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

25. Just because something (A) is expansive, (B) it is not necessarily (C) superior. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

26. Although (A) Goa is a small State, (B) it is very popular (C) with tourists. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

27. One does not appreciate (A) the importance (B) of good health (C) until one is ill. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 28–32) Rearrange the following five sentences/ group of sentences (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) “My horns are my weapons,” said the deer. “I’m sharpening them.”
(2) Frightened by the deer’s sharpened horns, he turned to the fox instead and shot him dead.
(3) The fox wondered why the deer was wasting time sharpening his weapons when there was no danger in sight.
(4) A wild deer was rubbing his horns against a tree. A fox passing by asked him what he was doing.
(5) Just then a hunter appeared at the scene.

28. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
(E) 1
Ans : (B)

29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
(E) 1
Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
(E) 1
Ans : (D)

31. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 33–40) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

One day, it so happened that Emperor Akbar …(33)… on a rock in his garden. He was in a foul mood that day and the accident made him so …(34)… that he ordered the gardener’s arrest and execution. The next day when the gardener was …(35)… what his last wish would be before he was hanged, he …(36)… an audience with the emperor. His wish was …(37)…, but when the man neared the throne he loudly cleared his throat and spat at the emperor’s feet. The emperor was taken aback and …(38)… to know why he had done such a thing. The gardener had acted on Birbal’s advice and now Birbal stepped forward in the man’s defence. ‘Your Majesty,’ he said, “there could be no person more loyal to you than this unfortunate man. Fearing that people would say you hanged him for a trifle, he has gone out of his way to give you a …(39)… reason for hanging him.’’ The emperor, …(40)… that he was about to do great injustice to an innocent man, set the man free.

33. (A) fall
(B) faltered
(C) bruised
(D) trip
(E) stumbled
Ans : (E)

34. (A) imaginative
(B) troubled
(C) disturb
(D) angry
(E) unfortunate
Ans : (D)

35. (A) understanding
(B) question
(C) told
(D) requested
(E) asked
Ans : (D)

36. (A) willing
(B) requested
(C) said
(D) demand
(E) propose
Ans : (B)

37. (A) granted
(B) presented
(C) privileged
(D) judged
(E) weighed
Ans : (A)

38. (A) claimed
(B) asked
(C) demanded
(D) wanting
(E) seemed
Ans : (C)

39. (A) genuine
(B) some
(C) prized
(D) justly
(E) more
Ans : (A)

40. (A) understands
(B) realising
(C) foresee
(D) announced
(E) thinks
Ans : (D)

United Bank of India Declared Interview Cut Off List for Probationary Officer (PO) Recruitment 2012

United Bank of India notified the interview cut off list for interview for recruitment of 450 General Banking Officers (PO) in Junior Management Grade Scale- I. The interview process will start tentatively in the month of April/ May 2012 in phases at selected centres.
The candidates were selected on the basis of eligibility criteria notified by the bank along with cut off list prepared through a valid IBPS score obtained. The category wise minimum Cut off Marks of candidates called for Interview are 172 for General Category, 167 for OBC, 157 for SC, 145 for ST, 163 for OC, 125 for HI, and 168 for VI.
United Bank of India (UBI) is one of the 14 major banks which were nationalized on July 19, 1969. Its predecessor the United Bank of India Ltd., was formed in 1950 with the amalgamation of four banks viz. Comilla Banking Corporation Ltd. (1914), Bengal Central Bank Ltd. (1918), Comilla Union Bank Ltd. (1922) and Hooghly Bank Ltd. (1932).

IBPS Human Resource (HR) Practice Questions

1. While conceiving an organization chiefly as a designing process which one of the following writers felt that “lack of design is illogical, cruel, wasteful and inefficient?
(a)Luther Gulick
(b) Lyndall Urwick
(c)Henri Fayot
(d) James Mooney

Answer: (d)

2. Chris Argyris suggests the T group technique for improving the personal effectiveness of employees. Which one of the following is not part of this type of sensitivity training?
(a) Individual employees have to expose their behavior and they give, receive and get feedback
(b) It provides possibilities to learn the nature of effective group functioning
(c) Subordinates feel happier under conditions of directive leadership
(d) Psychological success, self-esteem and inter personal competence can be increased

Answer: (c)

3. which of the following are correctly matched?
I. Authority …….It is accepted as legitimate
2. Power ……. Carrying out ones will despite resistance
3. Control …….. Ability to guide
4. Discretion…….. Choosing among alternatives causes of action

(a) 1,2,3and4
(b) 2and4
(c) 1,2and4
(d) 1and3

Answer: (c)

4. which of the following factors could limitations on the authority of a superior?
1. Group behavior
2. Social relationships
3. Organizational norms
4. Bonafide instructions
(a) 1, 2,3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) l,2 and 3

Answer: (a)

5.Which of the following have undermined the importance of Principle of Unity of Command in recent years?
1. Growing size and complexity of government
2. Increasing number and influence of civil servants
3. Manning of government positions by experts
4. Increasing number and influence of boards, commissions and auxiliary agencies
(a) land3
(b) land2
(c)3and4
(d) 2and4

Answer: (c)

6. The statement, “Co-ordination is the orderly arrangement of group efforts, to provide unity of action in the pursuit of a common purpose” is attributed to
(a)Willoughby
(b) Urwick
(c)Mooney
(d) White

Answer:(c)

7. When the delegation goes by a climate of understanding between the superior and subordinate, it is known as
(a). General delegation
(b) specific delegation
(c) Formal delegation
(d) informal delegation

Answer: (d)

8.The chief reason for delegation of authority from headquarter to field offices is to
(a) Inculcate skill in the latter
(b) Facilitate local division making
(c) Decongest the headquarter
(d) Control the field office

Answer: (b)

9.Which one of the following is a feature of the
Job centered supervisor, according to Likert?
(a) He exerts little pressure on the subordinates
(b) He exercises general supervision
(c) He exerts heavy pres to get the work done
(d) He motivates subordinates to achieve high performance goals

Answer: (c)

10. Which one of the following is NOT true of line activity?
(a) It has operational
(b) It stands for thought and facilitation
(c) It decides the organizational goals
(d) It has authority

Answer: (b)

11. Power to take decisions, communicating them to the subordinates for implementation and thus influencing behavior pattern in an organization is
(a)Responsibility
(b) Hierarchy
(c)Authority
(d) Unity of command

Answer: (c)

12. McGregor’s theory ‘Y’ emphasizes which of the following elements for an effective and successful organization?
I. Acceptance by management of “hierarchy of human needs” concept and making room for its fulfillment in the work organization.
2. Enlargement of job
13.Which of the following are the assumptions in Theory
I. Human beings have an inherent dislike of work
2. Because of human dislike of work, people must be punished
3. Human beings are committed to objectives
4. Human beings avoid responsibility
(a) l,2 and 4
(b) l,2 and 3
(c) 3and 4
(d) l,2,3 and 4

Answer: (a)

14.Which one of the following is NOT a feature of Barnard’s theory of formal organization?
(a) Common purpose
(b) Willingness to co-operate
(c) General incentives
(d) Communication

Answer: (c)

15. Who among the following does NOT uphold the acceptance theory of authority?
1. Taylor
2. Fayol
3. Barnard
4. Simon
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) l and 4

Answer: (c)

16 Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of the four basic steps in the Position Classification Plan?
(a) Job analysis, Grouping of Positions, Standardization, Position allocation
(b) Standardization, Job analysis, Grouping of Positions, Position allocation
(c), Grouping of Position, Job analysis; Position allocation, Standardization
(d) Position allocation, Standardization, Job analysis, Grouping of Positions

Answer: (a)

17.Which one of the following is NOT a function of the subordinates.
(a) To evolve a systematic pattern of the terms of delegation
(b) To improve the methods of publicity of the rules
(c) To lay down rules and regulations on the table of the House
(d) To achieve uniformity in rule-making procedures

Answer: (c)

18.Which of the following are implied by Hierarchy?
1. Higher levels cannot take disciplinary action against subordinates.
2. Higher levels have the freedom to carry out the operations.
3. Upper levels set the goals to be pursued.
4. Lower levels Jake action to pursue the goals.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) I and2
(b) 2and3
(c) 3and4
(d) l and 4

Answer: (c)

19.The scalar principle refers to as
(a) Classification of civil servants according to their scales of pay
(b) Grading of duties according to the degree of authority
(c) Organizing the relations between members of ‘line’ and ‘staff’ agencies
(d) Governing the allocation of persons to the different levels in the hierarchy

Answer: (b)

20. Unity of command does NOT mean:
(a) All the units of an organization should be integrated under the authority of one head
(b) The number of subordinates who can be effectively supervised by an officer.
(c) There should be one person and not a body of persons at the apex of an organization
(d) An individual employer should not be subject to the orders of more than immediate supervisors

Answer: (b)

21. Authority should ‘be commensurate with
(a) Degree of coordination
(b) Position in the hierarchy
(c) Degree of responsibility
(d) Degree of supervision

Answer: (c)

22. Which one of the following is NOT indicative of coordination?
(a) Collective action of one person with others
(b) Cooperation and team-work among the employees
(c) Inter-relating various parts of the work
(d) Integration of several parts into an orderly whole

Answer: (a)

23. In which of the following situations does the need for coordination arises?
1. Overlap of efforts
2. Duplication of efforts
3. Neglect of personal interests
4. Conflicts in interests

Answer: (b)

24. All person in authority, who control the work of others, are supervisors. Which one of the following methods of supervision was NOT suggested by Millet?
(a) Prior approval of individual projects
(b) Inspection of result as it leads to waste of time and energy
(c) A reporting system on work progress
(d) Budgetary limitations upon the magnitude of operations

Answer: (c)

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR BANK EXAMS

1. Which of the following states has launched the Indira Bal Swasthya Yojana (IBSY) to provide free treatment to all children?
a. Gujarat  
b. Rajasthan
c. Haryana  
d. Karnataka
2. The current headquarters of  The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) is located in which of the following cities?
a. Mumbai
b. Bengaluru
c. Dehradun  
d. New Delhi
3. Nirbasan is a book written by which of the following writers? 
a. Taslima Nasreen
b. Salman Rushdie
c. Begum Rokeya 
d. Selina Hossain
4. Which of the following States will host an international children film festival in association with CFSI in April 2012?
a. Goa 
b. Maharashtra
c. Odisha 
d. New Delhi
5. Which of the following states has successfully used mobile phone technology to provide timely healthcare to pregnant women and infants?
a. Gujarat   
b. Karnataka
c. Andhra Pradesh 
d. Haryana
6. Vizhinjam International Seaport is located in which state?
a. Kerala
b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Gujarat
7. The KK Birla Foundation has awarded the 21st Bihari Puraskar 2011 to Arjundeo Charan for his Rajasthani poetry collection:
a. Anta Ke Sanshaya
b. Ghar Tau Ek Nam Hai  Bhrosai Rau
c. Jagah Jaisi Jagah  
d. Utsav Ka Nirmam Samai
8. An international Congress on ‘Modern Concepts in Canine Health and Diseases of Human Concern’ was held in which of the following districts of Rajasthan from 9 to 11 February 2012?
a. Bikaner
b. Jaipur
c. Jhalawar
d. Jodhpur
9. The Union Ministry of Health & Family has launched a music video, Life Se Panga Mat Le Yaar, sung by Shaan. Shaan has been appointed India's: 
a. Population control  ambassador
b. AIDS control ambassador 
c. Cancer control  ambassador  
d. Tobacco control  ambassador
10. Who is the coach of the Indian women's hockey team? 
a. Sandeep Somesh
b. Mir Ranjan Negi
c. CR Kumar
d. Khalid Modi
11. The National Anti Doping Appeal Panel (NADAP) is headed by: 
a. DM Dharmadhikari 
b. PN Bhagwati
c. KT Thomas  
d. CK Mahajan
12 Who among the following is the current chairman of Prime Minister's Scientific Advisory Council?
a. CNR Rao  
b. Vikash Sinha
c. R Chidambaram  
d. R Narasimha
13. Russia will hand over the refurbished aircraft carrier, Admiral Gorshkov, to India before the end of 2012. Which of the following shipyards had built Admiral Gorshkov?
a.  Sevmash Shipyard  
b.  Hotchya Shipyard
c.  Samussky Ship Building
d.  Zvezda Shipyard
14. The Solicitor General for India is subordinate to the Attorney General of India. Who among the following is the current Solicitor-General?
a. Gopal Subramaniam  
b. Rohinton Nariman
c. GE Vahanvati
d. Harish Salve
15. In which of the following states are houses - with all facilities, including toilets, drainage, and road connectivity - being provided to displaced families under the Asare scheme?
a.  Andhra Pradesh  
b.  Karnataka
c.  Bihar   
d.  Odisha
16. Who among the following is the current President of the ATP Players' Council?
a.  Rafael Nadal  
b.  Roger Federer
c.  Brad Drewett  
d.  Ivan Ljubicic
17. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA. has given its final approval to the London-based mining group Vedanta Resources Plc's acquisition of a majority stake in Cairn India Limited for $8.48 billion. Who is the head of the CCEA? 
a. Manmohan Singh  
b. Kapil Sibbal
c.  Pranab Mukherjee  
d. Abhishek Manu Singhvi
18. Which of the following states has launched the Atal Bijli Bachat Yojna to reduce energy consumption and greenhouse gas emissions by distributing free four CFL bulbs to every household?
a.  Himachal Pradesh
b.  Madhya Pradesh
c.  Gujarat   
d.  Karnataka
19. Which state has become the first to set up a special commando unit for protecting tigers from poachers and hunters?
a.  Karnataka   
b.  Tamil Nadu
c.  Madhya Pradesh  
d.  Chhattisgarh
20. The National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC) is India's largest iron ore producer and exporter. Who is the current Chairman-cumManaging Director of NMDC?
a.  Rana Som   
b.  NK Nanda
c.  S Thiagarajan  
d.  Subimal Bose
21. The India Trade Promotion Organisation (ITPO) is the nodal agency of the Government of India for promoting external trade. Who among the following is the current C h a i r m a n - c u m - M a n a g i n g Director of ITPO?
a. Neeraj Kumar Gupta  
b.  Rita Menon
c.   AK Khanna   
d.  Sunil Kumar Sharma
22. The Kiran-Mk 2 is a/an:
a.  Indian Air Force (IAF)  aircraft 
b.  Scheme for adolescent  girls launched by  Andhra Pradesh
c.  Scheme for pregnant  women launched by  West Bengal
d.  Satellite dedicated to  Kalpana Chawla - to  be launched by ISRO 
23. Kobelco Cranes India Pvt Ltd (KCI), a part of Kobelco Cranes Company Limited (KCL) has commenced production at its hydraulic crane manufacturing plant in Andhra Pradesh. KCL originally belongs to which country?
a.  Japan  
b.  Germany
c.  South Korea 
d.  Sweden
24.  The GD Birla award is given each year to scientists who have contributed towards scientific research. Who among the following has won the GD Birla Award - 2011 for his contributions to the field of biochemistry?
a.  Santanu Bhattacharya  
b.  Tapas Kumar Kundu
c.  Nilesh Kumar    
d.  Manindra Agrawal 
25.  Who among the following authors has written the book Feeding the Forgotten Poor?
a. William D Dar   
b. Jagdish Bhagwati
c. Kuldip Nayyar   
d. Amartya Sen
26. Who among the following authors is the current President of Maldives?
a.  Mohammed Nasheed  
b. Waheed Hassan
c.  Ahmed Shihan   
d.  Abdullah Fairoosh
27. Which social activist refused to accept the Karnataka government's Basava Puruskar 2010 on grounds of “disagreement with certain state policies and inability of the government to deal with the mining scam and other scandals”?
a.  Medha Patkar  
b.  Anna Hazare
c.  Kiran Bedi   
d.  Aruna Roy
28. US President Barack Obama recently issued an executive order blocking the property of which of the following country's governments and its financial institutions in America?
a.  North Korea  
b.  Iran
c.  Syria    
d.  Cuba
29. The Indian Council of Agriculture Research (ICAR) is an autonomous organisation under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education, Ministry of Agriculture and was established on 16 July 1929. Where are the ICAR’s headquarters located? 
a.  Pantnagar    
b.  Puducherry
c.  New Delhi   
d.  Bhopal
30. Which New Delhi-based NGO has been awarded the “Best Institution for Child Development and Welfare” honour by the Union Minister of Women & Child Development, Krishna Tirath, recently?
a.  Ank    
b.  Uday
c.  Deepalaya   
d.  Tamana
31. The 14th Youth National Volleyball Championships were held in which of the following cities, from 7 to 13 February 2012?
a.  Hyderabad   
b.  New Delhi
c.  Kolkata   
d.  Pune
32. The All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) is responsible for proper planning and coordinated development of the technical education and management education system in India. Who is the Chairman of the AICTE?
a.  SS Mantha  
b.  Ram Avtar Yadav
c.  Rabinder Randhawa 
d.  H C Rai 
33. Kaiga power plant is a nuclear power generating station situated at Kaiga near the river Kali. Which state is it located in? 
a.  Karnataka   
b.  Tamil Nadu
c.  Maharashtra  
d.  Gujarat
34.  Kalakkad - Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (KMTR) is located in which of the following states? 
a.  Kerala   
b.  Andhra Pradesh
c.  Tamil Nadu   
d.  Karnataka

ANSWERS

1. (a) Haryana
2. (d) New Delhi
3. (a) Taslima Nasreen
4. (c) Odisha
5. (b) Karnataka
6. (a) Kerala
7. (b) Ghar Tau Ek Nam Hai Bhrosai Rau
8. (a) Bikaner
9. (d) Tobacco control ambassador
10. (c) CR Kumar
11. (d) CK Mahajan
12. (a) CNR Rao
13. (a) Sevmash Shipyard
14. (b) Rohinton Nariman
15. (b) Karnataka
16. (b) Roger Federer
17. (a) Manmohan Singh
18. (a) Himachal Pradesh
19. (a) Karnataka
20. (b) NK Nanda
21. (b) Rita Menon
22. (a) IAF aircra
23. (a) Japan
24. (b) Tapas Kumar Kundu
25. (a) William D. Dar
26. (b) Waheed Hassan
27. (a) Medha Patkar
28. (b) Iran
29. (c) New Delhi
30. (d) Tamana
31. (c) Kolkata
32. (a) SS Mantha
33. (a) Karnataka
34. (c) Tamil Nadu

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR BANK EXAMS

1. What role do Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) play in a country’s economic and industrial development ?
(A) They have the capacity to absorb skilled and unskilled labour available in the country.
(B) Such institutions help in distribution of income in a wide spectrum and do not allow it to get concentrated in few hands or in few areas.
(C) They help in eradication of poverty by providing self-emplovment opportunities.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (A) & (C)
(5) All (A), (B) & (C)
2. Which of the following statements about the Indian Economy is correct ?
(1) Indian economy is as developed as that of China
(2) About 70% Indians are involved in some type of self-employment and are the owners of some or the other micro or small enterprise
(3) In India single biggest employment is agriculture and allied activities
(4) About 48% Indian workforce is employed in foreign countries or in organisations assisted by foreign capital
(5) None of these
3. Which of the following is/are correct about the problems of Indian Agriculture ?
(A) Large agricultural subsidies are hampering productivity-enhancing investments.
(B) Irrigation infrastructure is in bad shape and needs immediate improvement.
(C) Frequent takeovers of fertile land by private companies and multinationals to launch big business complexes.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (A) & (B)
(3) Only (A) & (C)
(4) All (A), (B) & (C)
(5) None of these
4. As per news in various journals, many banks have failed to achieve agri-loan target fixed by the RBI for the year 2010-11. What was the target fixed for the year ?
(1) 10%
(2) 15%
(3) 18%
(4) 24%
(5) 30%
5. Which of the following statements about Agro and Allied activities is not correct ?
(1) Farmers do not get adequate credit for purchase of cattle
(2) There is a need to improve breed and genetic characteristics of the cattle folk
(3) India has huge forest cover and also degraded and marshy land which can be used for productive purposes
(4) India is the 10th largest producer of medicinal and aromatic plants, but the products are not of commercial-value
(5) Animal husbandry plays an important role in providing sustainability under Rain-fed conditions
6. Which of the following schemes launched by the Government of India aims at enhancing the livelihood security of the people in rural areas by guaranteeing hundred days of employment in a financial year to a rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work ?
(1) TRYSEM
(2) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(3) Kutir Jyoti Scheme
(4) ASHA
(5) MGNREGA
7. In some parts of India, farmers face acute distress because of heavy burden of debt from non-institutional lenders. Who can be called a non-institutional lender ?
(1) Small Banks
(2) Grameen Banks
(3) Credit Cooperative Societies
(4) Micro Finance Institutions
(5) Moneylenders

8. The South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was introduced with a view of levying how much custom duty for trading any product within the SAARC zone ?
(1) 5%
(2) 4%
(3) 2%
(4) 1%
(5) No customs duty
9. Which of the following organisations prepares rural credit plans on annual basis for all districts in India, which in turn form the base for annual credit plans of all rural financial institutions ?
(1) SIDBI
(2) NABARD
(3) RBI
(4) Indian Banks Association
(5) CII
10. Which of the following is TRUE about the current population trend (s) in India ?
(A) Every year India adds more people to the world’s population than any other country.
(B) Currently India has a young population which will grow somewhat older largely as a result of decline in fertility.
(C) The National Family Planning Programme did not contribute much in controlling fertility rate.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (A) & (B)
(5) All (A), (B) & (C)
11. In economic terms, which of the following factors determine the ‘Individual’s demand’ of a product/ commodity ?
(A) Price of a commodity.
(B) Income of the mdividual.
(C) Utility and quality of a commodity
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (A) & (C)
(5) All (A), (B) & (C)
12. Which of the following terms is used in the field of economics ?
(1) Adiabatic
(2) Bohr Theory
(3) Plasma
(4) Barter System
(5) Viscosity
13. “Pascal Lamy calls on trade negotiators to move out of their comfort zones towards agreements”, was the headline in some major newspapers. This news is associated with which of the following organisations/agencies ?
(1) World Trade Organisation
(2) International Monetary Fund
(3) World Bank
(4) United Nations Organisation
(5) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
14. Which of the following is not a function of the Planning Commission of India ?
(1) Assessment of the material, capital and human resources of the country
(2) Formulation of plans for the most effective and balanced utilisation of country’s resources
(3) Public cooperation in national development
(4) Preparation of annual budget of the country and collection of taxes to raise capital for the implementation of the plans
(5) Determination of stages in which the Plan should be carried out
15. Which of the following periods represents the period of the first Five-Year Plan in India?
(1) 1948 – 53
(2) 1947 – 52
(3) 1952 – 57
(4) 1950 – 55
(5) 1951 – 56
16. Which of the following is the name of the process available to common people to seek court’s intervention in matters of public interest ?
(1) Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
(2) Habeas Corpus
(3) Ordinance
(4) Residuary power
(5) None of these
17. India’s foreign policy is based on several principles, one of which is
(1) Panchsheel
(2) Satyamev Jayate
(3) Live and Let Live
(4) Vasudhaiv Kutumbkam
(5) None of these
18. As we know thousands of tonnes of foodgrain was washed away in the floods in Haryana and Punjab a few months back. This incident is an example which indicates that there is a scope for improvement in our machinery controlling our
(1) Mid Day Meal Scheme
(2) Public Distribution System
(3) Food for Work Programme
(4) Village Grain Bank Scheme
(5) Operation Flood Scheme
19. President Barack Obama was on a visit to India a few months back. His visit is said to have forged both the nations into a new era of relations. India managed to sign a special agreement with US in which of the following fields/areas as a byproduct of the visit of Obama ?
(A) Energy sector & Nuclear energy as US has lifted sanctions on supply of high tech machines.
(B) Skill Development Programmes in IT sector in which US has super-specialisation.
(C) Training in management of Micro-finance Institutions.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (A) & (C)
(4) Only (B) & (C)
(5) Only (A) & (B)
20. Many times we read a term Tax Haven’ in various newspapers. What does it mean ?
(A) It is a country where certain taxes are levied at a very low rate.
(B) It is a country where people can dump their illegal money without any problem.
(C) It is a place where foreigners can work without paying any tax on their income.
(1) Only (A) & (B)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (B) & (C)
(4) Only (A)
(5) All (A), (B) & (C)
21. As per existing law, what is the minimum per day wages paid to a worker from unorganised sector in India ?
(1) Rs. 50
(2) Rs. 75
(3) Rs. 100
(4) Rs. 125
(5) No such law is there
22. Who amongst the following was awarded the “Indira Gandhi Peace Prize” for 2010 ?
(1) Ronald Noble
(2) Luiz Inacio Lula D’Silva
(3) Mohammed ElBaradei
(4) Aung San Suu Kyi
(5) None of these.
23. Which of the following is not a Poverty Eradication Programme launched by the Government of India ?
(1) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
(2) Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana
(3) National Social Assistance Programme
(4) AADHAAR
(5) National Family Benefit Scheme
24. According to the World Bank estimate about 40% Indians are living below International Poverty line of US $
(1) 1 per day
(2) 1.25 per day
(3) 2 per day
(4) 2.5 per day
(5) 3 per day
25. The 10th Trilateral Ministerial Meeting of RIC group was organised in November 2010. Who are the members of the RIC ?
(1) Russia – Iran – China
(2) Russia – India – China
(3) Romania – Iran – Canada
(4) Romania – Israel – Chile
(5) Russia – India – Croatia
26. India and Syria recently decided to double their trade in next 2 years. Indian Government has decided to export which of the following commodities to Syria ?
(1) Natural gas
(2) Milk
(3) OIL
(4) Wheat
(5) All of these
27. India has sanctioned a Rs. 26 million grant to which of the following countries for development of tube wells ?
(1) Myanmar
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Nepal
(4) Pakistan
(5) Sri Lanka
28. Which of the following is the name of the scheme launched by the Government of India for adolescent girls ? (Launched in November 2010)
(1) Swawlamban
(2) SABALA
(3) AADHAAR
(4) ASHA
(5) None of these
29. Many times we see in financial journals/bulletins a term M3. What is M3 ?
(1) Currency in circulation on a particular day
(2) Total value of the foreign exchange on a particular day
(3) Total value of export credit on a given date
(4) Total value of the tax collected in a year
(5) None of these
30. As per news in various newspapers, Government has allocated a huge sum of Rs. 31,000 crore for ‘RTE’. What is full form of RTE ?
(1) Right to Education
(2) Reforms in Technical Education
(3) Return to Empowerment
(4) Right to Empowerment
(5) Renewable Technology for Energy
31. Which of the following is not a major function of the RBI in India ?
(1) Issuance of currency notes
(2) To facilitate external trade and payment and developing a foreign exchange market in India
(3) Maintaining price stability and ensuring adequate flow of credit to productive sectors
(4) Taking loans/credit from World Bank/IMF and ADB etc. and reallocating it for various activities decided by the Government of India
(5) Formulation and monitoring the monetary and credit policy
32. The RBI has regional offices at various places. At which of the following places it does not have an office ?
(1) Kota
(2) Shimla
(3) Lucknow
(4) Panaji
(5) Guwahati
33. Which of the following organisations/agencies has given a US, $ 407 billion loan to India to boost up its micro finance services in unbanked areas ?
(1) IMF
(2) World Bank
(3) Bank of Japan
(4) ADB
(5) Jointly by IMF and ADB
34. The Prime Minister’s Economic Advisory Council (PMEAC) has projected that the Indian Exports will grow by what percentage during 2010-11 ?
(1) 15%
(2) 18%
(3) 22%
(4) 24%
(5) 28%
35. Which of the following organisations/agencies has given the estimate that India will be third largest FDI recipient in 2010-12 ?
(1) UNCTAD
(2) WTO
(3) World Bank
(4) IMF
(5) None of these
36. The performance of which of the following industries is considered performance of a core industry ?
(1) Garments
(2) Leather
(3) IT
(4) Oil and Petroleum
(5) Handicrafts
37. Who amongst the following is not a recipient of Nobel Prize in economics ?
(1) Peter A. Diamond
(2) Dale T. Mortensen
(3) Amartya Sen
(4) Paul Krugman
(5) Robert G. Edwards
38. Basel Committee has given its recommendations on which of the following aspects of banking operations ?
(1) Marketing of bank products
(2) Priority sector lending
(3) Risk Management
(4) Micro financing
(5) All of these
39. Which of the following is the rank of India in Human Development Report 2010 prepared by the UNO ?
(1) 99
(2) 100
(3) 115
(4) 119
(5) None of these
40. Which of the following was/were the key objectives of the RBI’s review of Monetary and Credit Policy 2010-11 which was reviewed again on 2nd November 2010 ?
(A) To sustain the anti-inflationary thrust.
(B) To maintain an interest rate regime consistent with price.
(C) To provide e^rtra tax incentives to exporters who were in stress due to market fluctuations.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (A) & (B)
(4) All (A), (B) & (C)
(5) None of these
41. PUGS is the group of nations falling under
(1) Euro zone
(2) Asia Pacific
(3) SAARC
(4) NATO
(5) Commonwealth
42. Which of the following is / are the preconditions, the IMF has put to provide bail out package to Ireland ?
(A) It should gradually lower down unemployment benefits.
(B) It should bring down the minimum wages in order to boost employment.
(C) It should import some of the crucial commodities from non euro countries as an immediate measure to improve shortage of the same.
(1) Only (A) & (B)
(2) Only (B) & (C)
(3) Only (A) & (C)
(4) Only (A)
(5) All (A), (B) & (C)
43. India is self sufficient in production of which of the following commodities ?
(1) Edible oil
(2) Milk
(3) Pulses
(4) Natural gas
(5) All of these
44. Which of the following is used as a fuel in Nuclear power stations in India ?
(1) Thorium
(2) Copper
(3) Tin
(4) Cromium
(5) All of these
45. Which of the following States has taken up the job of improving Dams with the help of the World Bank’s Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement project ?
(1) Kerala
(2) Gujarat
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Uttar Pradesh
(5) Guwahati
46. Nitish Kumar-led National Democratic Alliance won how many seats in recendy held assembly elections in Bihar ?
(1) 150
(2) 243
(3) 200
(4) 206
(5) None of these
47. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “Development as Freedom”?
(1) M. S. Swaminathan
(2) C. Rangarajan
(3) Manmohan Singh
(4) Y.V. Reddy
(5) Amartya Sen
48. Which of the following terms is used in Finance and Banking ?
(1) Line of Sight
(2) Scattering Loss
(3) Revenue
(4) Oscillation
(5) Shielding
49. Who amongst the following is a famous economist ?
(1) Richard Dawkins
(2) Alan Greenspan
(3) Vernon Heywood
(4) Olivar Sachs
(5) Stephen Hawking
50. Who amongst the following has never held post of the Governor of the RBI
(1) C. Rangarajan
(2) L. K. Jha
(3) Manmohan Singh
(4) Bimal Jalan
(5) Usha Thorat

ANSWERS:

1. [4]	6. [5]	11. [5]	16. [1]	21. [3]	26. [4]	31. [4]	36. [4]	41. [1]	46. [4]
2. [3]	7. [5]	12. [4]	17. [1]	22. [2]	27. [5]	32. [1]	37. [1]	42. [5]	47. [5]
3. [4]	8. [5]	13. [3]	18. [4]	23. [2]	28. [5]	33. [2]	38. [3]	43. [1]	48. [3]
4. [3]	9. [2]	14. [4]	19. [5]	24. [1]	29. [1]	34. [3]	39. [4]	44. [1]	49. [2]
5. [4]	10. [1]	15. [5]	20. [2]	25. [2]	30. [1]	35. [1]	40. [3]	45. [1]	50. [5]