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Friday, April 20, 2012

IBPS Human Resource (HR) Practice Questions

1. While conceiving an organization chiefly as a designing process which one of the following writers felt that “lack of design is illogical, cruel, wasteful and inefficient?
(a)Luther Gulick
(b) Lyndall Urwick
(c)Henri Fayot
(d) James Mooney
Answer: (d)
2. Chris Argyris suggests the T group technique for improving the personal effectiveness of employees. Which one of the following is not part of this type of sensitivity training?
(a) Individual employees have to expose their behavior and they give, receive and get feedback
(b) It provides possibilities to learn the nature of effective group functioning
(c) Subordinates feel happier under conditions of directive leadership
(d) Psychological success, self-esteem and inter personal competence can be increased
Answer: (c)
3. which of the following are correctly matched?
I. Authority …….It is accepted as legitimate
2. Power ……. Carrying out ones will despite resistance
3. Control …….. Ability to guide
4. Discretion…….. Choosing among alternatives causes of action
(a) 1,2,3and4
(b) 2and4
(c) 1,2and4
(d) 1and3
Answer: (c)
4. which of the following factors could limitations on the authority of a superior?
1. Group behavior
2. Social relationships
3. Organizational norms
4. Bonafide instructions
(a) 1, 2,3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) l,2 and 3
Answer: (a)
5.Which of the following have undermined the importance of Principle of Unity of Command in recent years?
1. Growing size and complexity of government
2. Increasing number and influence of civil servants
3. Manning of government positions by experts
4. Increasing number and influence of boards, commissions and auxiliary agencies
(a) land3
(b) land2
(c)3and4
(d) 2and4
Answer: (c)
6. The statement, “Co-ordination is the orderly arrangement of group efforts, to provide unity of action in the pursuit of a common purpose” is attributed to
(a)Willoughby
(b) Urwick
(c)Mooney
(d) White
Answer:(c)
7. When the delegation goes by a climate of understanding between the superior and subordinate, it is known as
(a). General delegation
(b) specific delegation
(c) Formal delegation
(d) informal delegation
Answer: (d)
8.The chief reason for delegation of authority from headquarter to field offices is to
(a) Inculcate skill in the latter
(b) Facilitate local division making
(c) Decongest the headquarter
(d) Control the field office
Answer: (b)
9.Which one of the following is a feature of the
Job centered supervisor, according to Likert?
(a) He exerts little pressure on the subordinates
(b) He exercises general supervision
(c) He exerts heavy pres to get the work done
(d) He motivates subordinates to achieve high performance goals
Answer: (c)
10. Which one of the following is NOT true of line activity?
(a) It has operational
(b) It stands for thought and facilitation
(c) It decides the organizational goals
(d) It has authority
Answer: (b)
11. Power to take decisions, communicating them to the subordinates for implementation and thus influencing behavior pattern in an organization is
(a)Responsibility
(b) Hierarchy
(c)Authority
(d) Unity of command
Answer: (c)
12. McGregor’s theory ‘Y’ emphasizes which of the following elements for an effective and successful organization?
I. Acceptance by management of “hierarchy of human needs” concept and making room for its fulfillment in the work organization.
2. Enlargement of job
13.Which of the following are the assumptions in Theory
I. Human beings have an inherent dislike of work
2. Because of human dislike of work, people must be punished
3. Human beings are committed to objectives
4. Human beings avoid responsibility
(a) l,2 and 4
(b) l,2 and 3
(c) 3and 4
(d) l,2,3 and 4
Answer: (a)
14.Which one of the following is NOT a feature of Barnard’s theory of formal organization?
(a) Common purpose
(b) Willingness to co-operate
(c) General incentives
(d) Communication
Answer: (c)
15. Who among the following does NOT uphold the acceptance theory of authority?
1. Taylor
2. Fayol
3. Barnard
4. Simon
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) l and 4
Answer: (c)
16 Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of the four basic steps in the Position Classification Plan?
(a) Job analysis, Grouping of Positions, Standardization, Position allocation
(b) Standardization, Job analysis, Grouping of Positions, Position allocation
(c), Grouping of Position, Job analysis; Position allocation, Standardization
(d) Position allocation, Standardization, Job analysis, Grouping of Positions
Answer: (a)
17.Which one of the following is NOT a function of the subordinates.
(a) To evolve a systematic pattern of the terms of delegation
(b) To improve the methods of publicity of the rules
(c) To lay down rules and regulations on the table of the House
(d) To achieve uniformity in rule-making procedures
Answer: (c)
18.Which of the following are implied by Hierarchy?
1. Higher levels cannot take disciplinary action against subordinates.
2. Higher levels have the freedom to carry out the operations.
3. Upper levels set the goals to be pursued.
4. Lower levels Jake action to pursue the goals.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) I and2
(b) 2and3
(c) 3and4
(d) l and 4
Answer: (c)
19.The scalar principle refers to as
(a) Classification of civil servants according to their scales of pay
(b) Grading of duties according to the degree of authority
(c) Organizing the relations between members of ‘line’ and ‘staff’ agencies
(d) Governing the allocation of persons to the different levels in the hierarchy
Answer: (b)
20. Unity of command does NOT mean:
(a) All the units of an organization should be integrated under the authority of one head
(b) The number of subordinates who can be effectively supervised by an officer.
(c) There should be one person and not a body of persons at the apex of an organization
(d) An individual employer should not be subject to the orders of more than immediate supervisors
Answer: (b)
21. Authority should ‘be commensurate with
(a) Degree of coordination
(b) Position in the hierarchy
(c) Degree of responsibility
(d) Degree of supervision
Answer: (c)
22. Which one of the following is NOT indicative of coordination?
(a) Collective action of one person with others
(b) Cooperation and team-work among the employees
(c) Inter-relating various parts of the work
(d) Integration of several parts into an orderly whole
Answer: (a)
23. In which of the following situations does the need for coordination arises?
1. Overlap of efforts
2. Duplication of efforts
3. Neglect of personal interests
4. Conflicts in interests
Answer: (b)
24. All person in authority, who control the work of others, are supervisors. Which one of the following methods of supervision was NOT suggested by Millet?
(a) Prior approval of individual projects
(b) Inspection of result as it leads to waste of time and energy
(c) A reporting system on work progress
(d) Budgetary limitations upon the magnitude of operations
Answer: (c)

Wednesday, April 18, 2012

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR BANK EXAMS

1. Which of the following states has launched the Indira Bal Swasthya Yojana (IBSY) to provide free treatment to all children?
a. Gujarat  
b. Rajasthan
c. Haryana  
d. Karnataka
2. The current headquarters of  The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) is located in which of the following cities?
a. Mumbai
b. Bengaluru
c. Dehradun  
d. New Delhi
3. Nirbasan is a book written by which of the following writers? 
a. Taslima Nasreen
b. Salman Rushdie
c. Begum Rokeya 
d. Selina Hossain
4. Which of the following States will host an international children film festival in association with CFSI in April 2012?
a. Goa 
b. Maharashtra
c. Odisha 
d. New Delhi
5. Which of the following states has successfully used mobile phone technology to provide timely healthcare to pregnant women and infants?
a. Gujarat   
b. Karnataka
c. Andhra Pradesh 
d. Haryana
6. Vizhinjam International Seaport is located in which state?
a. Kerala
b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Gujarat
7. The KK Birla Foundation has awarded the 21st Bihari Puraskar 2011 to Arjundeo Charan for his Rajasthani poetry collection:
a. Anta Ke Sanshaya
b. Ghar Tau Ek Nam Hai  Bhrosai Rau
c. Jagah Jaisi Jagah  
d. Utsav Ka Nirmam Samai
8. An international Congress on ‘Modern Concepts in Canine Health and Diseases of Human Concern’ was held in which of the following districts of Rajasthan from 9 to 11 February 2012?
a. Bikaner
b. Jaipur
c. Jhalawar
d. Jodhpur
9. The Union Ministry of Health & Family has launched a music video, Life Se Panga Mat Le Yaar, sung by Shaan. Shaan has been appointed India's: 
a. Population control  ambassador
b. AIDS control ambassador 
c. Cancer control  ambassador  
d. Tobacco control  ambassador
10. Who is the coach of the Indian women's hockey team? 
a. Sandeep Somesh
b. Mir Ranjan Negi
c. CR Kumar
d. Khalid Modi
11. The National Anti Doping Appeal Panel (NADAP) is headed by: 
a. DM Dharmadhikari 
b. PN Bhagwati
c. KT Thomas  
d. CK Mahajan
12 Who among the following is the current chairman of Prime Minister's Scientific Advisory Council?
a. CNR Rao  
b. Vikash Sinha
c. R Chidambaram  
d. R Narasimha
13. Russia will hand over the refurbished aircraft carrier, Admiral Gorshkov, to India before the end of 2012. Which of the following shipyards had built Admiral Gorshkov?
a.  Sevmash Shipyard  
b.  Hotchya Shipyard
c.  Samussky Ship Building
d.  Zvezda Shipyard
14. The Solicitor General for India is subordinate to the Attorney General of India. Who among the following is the current Solicitor-General?
a. Gopal Subramaniam  
b. Rohinton Nariman
c. GE Vahanvati
d. Harish Salve
15. In which of the following states are houses - with all facilities, including toilets, drainage, and road connectivity - being provided to displaced families under the Asare scheme?
a.  Andhra Pradesh  
b.  Karnataka
c.  Bihar   
d.  Odisha
16. Who among the following is the current President of the ATP Players' Council?
a.  Rafael Nadal  
b.  Roger Federer
c.  Brad Drewett  
d.  Ivan Ljubicic
17. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA. has given its final approval to the London-based mining group Vedanta Resources Plc's acquisition of a majority stake in Cairn India Limited for $8.48 billion. Who is the head of the CCEA? 
a. Manmohan Singh  
b. Kapil Sibbal
c.  Pranab Mukherjee  
d. Abhishek Manu Singhvi
18. Which of the following states has launched the Atal Bijli Bachat Yojna to reduce energy consumption and greenhouse gas emissions by distributing free four CFL bulbs to every household?
a.  Himachal Pradesh
b.  Madhya Pradesh
c.  Gujarat   
d.  Karnataka
19. Which state has become the first to set up a special commando unit for protecting tigers from poachers and hunters?
a.  Karnataka   
b.  Tamil Nadu
c.  Madhya Pradesh  
d.  Chhattisgarh
20. The National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC) is India's largest iron ore producer and exporter. Who is the current Chairman-cumManaging Director of NMDC?
a.  Rana Som   
b.  NK Nanda
c.  S Thiagarajan  
d.  Subimal Bose
21. The India Trade Promotion Organisation (ITPO) is the nodal agency of the Government of India for promoting external trade. Who among the following is the current C h a i r m a n - c u m - M a n a g i n g Director of ITPO?
a. Neeraj Kumar Gupta  
b.  Rita Menon
c.   AK Khanna   
d.  Sunil Kumar Sharma
22. The Kiran-Mk 2 is a/an:
a.  Indian Air Force (IAF)  aircraft 
b.  Scheme for adolescent  girls launched by  Andhra Pradesh
c.  Scheme for pregnant  women launched by  West Bengal
d.  Satellite dedicated to  Kalpana Chawla - to  be launched by ISRO 
23. Kobelco Cranes India Pvt Ltd (KCI), a part of Kobelco Cranes Company Limited (KCL) has commenced production at its hydraulic crane manufacturing plant in Andhra Pradesh. KCL originally belongs to which country?
a.  Japan  
b.  Germany
c.  South Korea 
d.  Sweden
24.  The GD Birla award is given each year to scientists who have contributed towards scientific research. Who among the following has won the GD Birla Award - 2011 for his contributions to the field of biochemistry?
a.  Santanu Bhattacharya  
b.  Tapas Kumar Kundu
c.  Nilesh Kumar    
d.  Manindra Agrawal 
25.  Who among the following authors has written the book Feeding the Forgotten Poor?
a. William D Dar   
b. Jagdish Bhagwati
c. Kuldip Nayyar   
d. Amartya Sen
26. Who among the following authors is the current President of Maldives?
a.  Mohammed Nasheed  
b. Waheed Hassan
c.  Ahmed Shihan   
d.  Abdullah Fairoosh
27. Which social activist refused to accept the Karnataka government's Basava Puruskar 2010 on grounds of “disagreement with certain state policies and inability of the government to deal with the mining scam and other scandals”?
a.  Medha Patkar  
b.  Anna Hazare
c.  Kiran Bedi   
d.  Aruna Roy
28. US President Barack Obama recently issued an executive order blocking the property of which of the following country's governments and its financial institutions in America?
a.  North Korea  
b.  Iran
c.  Syria    
d.  Cuba
29. The Indian Council of Agriculture Research (ICAR) is an autonomous organisation under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education, Ministry of Agriculture and was established on 16 July 1929. Where are the ICAR’s headquarters located? 
a.  Pantnagar    
b.  Puducherry
c.  New Delhi   
d.  Bhopal
30. Which New Delhi-based NGO has been awarded the “Best Institution for Child Development and Welfare” honour by the Union Minister of Women & Child Development, Krishna Tirath, recently?
a.  Ank    
b.  Uday
c.  Deepalaya   
d.  Tamana
31. The 14th Youth National Volleyball Championships were held in which of the following cities, from 7 to 13 February 2012?
a.  Hyderabad   
b.  New Delhi
c.  Kolkata   
d.  Pune
32. The All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) is responsible for proper planning and coordinated development of the technical education and management education system in India. Who is the Chairman of the AICTE?
a.  SS Mantha  
b.  Ram Avtar Yadav
c.  Rabinder Randhawa 
d.  H C Rai 
33. Kaiga power plant is a nuclear power generating station situated at Kaiga near the river Kali. Which state is it located in? 
a.  Karnataka   
b.  Tamil Nadu
c.  Maharashtra  
d.  Gujarat
34.  Kalakkad - Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (KMTR) is located in which of the following states? 
a.  Kerala   
b.  Andhra Pradesh
c.  Tamil Nadu   
d.  Karnataka

ANSWERS

1. (a) Haryana
2. (d) New Delhi
3. (a) Taslima Nasreen
4. (c) Odisha
5. (b) Karnataka
6. (a) Kerala
7. (b) Ghar Tau Ek Nam Hai Bhrosai Rau
8. (a) Bikaner
9. (d) Tobacco control ambassador
10. (c) CR Kumar
11. (d) CK Mahajan
12. (a) CNR Rao
13. (a) Sevmash Shipyard
14. (b) Rohinton Nariman
15. (b) Karnataka
16. (b) Roger Federer
17. (a) Manmohan Singh
18. (a) Himachal Pradesh
19. (a) Karnataka
20. (b) NK Nanda
21. (b) Rita Menon
22. (a) IAF aircra
23. (a) Japan
24. (b) Tapas Kumar Kundu
25. (a) William D. Dar
26. (b) Waheed Hassan
27. (a) Medha Patkar
28. (b) Iran
29. (c) New Delhi
30. (d) Tamana
31. (c) Kolkata
32. (a) SS Mantha
33. (a) Karnataka
34. (c) Tamil Nadu

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR BANK EXAMS

1. What role do Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) play in a country’s economic and industrial development ?
(A) They have the capacity to absorb skilled and unskilled labour available in the country.
(B) Such institutions help in distribution of income in a wide spectrum and do not allow it to get concentrated in few hands or in few areas.
(C) They help in eradication of poverty by providing self-emplovment opportunities.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (A) & (C)
(5) All (A), (B) & (C)
2. Which of the following statements about the Indian Economy is correct ?
(1) Indian economy is as developed as that of China
(2) About 70% Indians are involved in some type of self-employment and are the owners of some or the other micro or small enterprise
(3) In India single biggest employment is agriculture and allied activities
(4) About 48% Indian workforce is employed in foreign countries or in organisations assisted by foreign capital
(5) None of these
3. Which of the following is/are correct about the problems of Indian Agriculture ?
(A) Large agricultural subsidies are hampering productivity-enhancing investments.
(B) Irrigation infrastructure is in bad shape and needs immediate improvement.
(C) Frequent takeovers of fertile land by private companies and multinationals to launch big business complexes.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (A) & (B)
(3) Only (A) & (C)
(4) All (A), (B) & (C)
(5) None of these
4. As per news in various journals, many banks have failed to achieve agri-loan target fixed by the RBI for the year 2010-11. What was the target fixed for the year ?
(1) 10%
(2) 15%
(3) 18%
(4) 24%
(5) 30%
5. Which of the following statements about Agro and Allied activities is not correct ?
(1) Farmers do not get adequate credit for purchase of cattle
(2) There is a need to improve breed and genetic characteristics of the cattle folk
(3) India has huge forest cover and also degraded and marshy land which can be used for productive purposes
(4) India is the 10th largest producer of medicinal and aromatic plants, but the products are not of commercial-value
(5) Animal husbandry plays an important role in providing sustainability under Rain-fed conditions
6. Which of the following schemes launched by the Government of India aims at enhancing the livelihood security of the people in rural areas by guaranteeing hundred days of employment in a financial year to a rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work ?
(1) TRYSEM
(2) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(3) Kutir Jyoti Scheme
(4) ASHA
(5) MGNREGA
7. In some parts of India, farmers face acute distress because of heavy burden of debt from non-institutional lenders. Who can be called a non-institutional lender ?
(1) Small Banks
(2) Grameen Banks
(3) Credit Cooperative Societies
(4) Micro Finance Institutions
(5) Moneylenders

8. The South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was introduced with a view of levying how much custom duty for trading any product within the SAARC zone ?
(1) 5%
(2) 4%
(3) 2%
(4) 1%
(5) No customs duty
9. Which of the following organisations prepares rural credit plans on annual basis for all districts in India, which in turn form the base for annual credit plans of all rural financial institutions ?
(1) SIDBI
(2) NABARD
(3) RBI
(4) Indian Banks Association
(5) CII
10. Which of the following is TRUE about the current population trend (s) in India ?
(A) Every year India adds more people to the world’s population than any other country.
(B) Currently India has a young population which will grow somewhat older largely as a result of decline in fertility.
(C) The National Family Planning Programme did not contribute much in controlling fertility rate.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (A) & (B)
(5) All (A), (B) & (C)
11. In economic terms, which of the following factors determine the ‘Individual’s demand’ of a product/ commodity ?
(A) Price of a commodity.
(B) Income of the mdividual.
(C) Utility and quality of a commodity
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (A) & (C)
(5) All (A), (B) & (C)
12. Which of the following terms is used in the field of economics ?
(1) Adiabatic
(2) Bohr Theory
(3) Plasma
(4) Barter System
(5) Viscosity
13. “Pascal Lamy calls on trade negotiators to move out of their comfort zones towards agreements”, was the headline in some major newspapers. This news is associated with which of the following organisations/agencies ?
(1) World Trade Organisation
(2) International Monetary Fund
(3) World Bank
(4) United Nations Organisation
(5) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
14. Which of the following is not a function of the Planning Commission of India ?
(1) Assessment of the material, capital and human resources of the country
(2) Formulation of plans for the most effective and balanced utilisation of country’s resources
(3) Public cooperation in national development
(4) Preparation of annual budget of the country and collection of taxes to raise capital for the implementation of the plans
(5) Determination of stages in which the Plan should be carried out
15. Which of the following periods represents the period of the first Five-Year Plan in India?
(1) 1948 – 53
(2) 1947 – 52
(3) 1952 – 57
(4) 1950 – 55
(5) 1951 – 56
16. Which of the following is the name of the process available to common people to seek court’s intervention in matters of public interest ?
(1) Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
(2) Habeas Corpus
(3) Ordinance
(4) Residuary power
(5) None of these
17. India’s foreign policy is based on several principles, one of which is
(1) Panchsheel
(2) Satyamev Jayate
(3) Live and Let Live
(4) Vasudhaiv Kutumbkam
(5) None of these
18. As we know thousands of tonnes of foodgrain was washed away in the floods in Haryana and Punjab a few months back. This incident is an example which indicates that there is a scope for improvement in our machinery controlling our
(1) Mid Day Meal Scheme
(2) Public Distribution System
(3) Food for Work Programme
(4) Village Grain Bank Scheme
(5) Operation Flood Scheme
19. President Barack Obama was on a visit to India a few months back. His visit is said to have forged both the nations into a new era of relations. India managed to sign a special agreement with US in which of the following fields/areas as a byproduct of the visit of Obama ?
(A) Energy sector & Nuclear energy as US has lifted sanctions on supply of high tech machines.
(B) Skill Development Programmes in IT sector in which US has super-specialisation.
(C) Training in management of Micro-finance Institutions.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (A) & (C)
(4) Only (B) & (C)
(5) Only (A) & (B)
20. Many times we read a term Tax Haven’ in various newspapers. What does it mean ?
(A) It is a country where certain taxes are levied at a very low rate.
(B) It is a country where people can dump their illegal money without any problem.
(C) It is a place where foreigners can work without paying any tax on their income.
(1) Only (A) & (B)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (B) & (C)
(4) Only (A)
(5) All (A), (B) & (C)
21. As per existing law, what is the minimum per day wages paid to a worker from unorganised sector in India ?
(1) Rs. 50
(2) Rs. 75
(3) Rs. 100
(4) Rs. 125
(5) No such law is there
22. Who amongst the following was awarded the “Indira Gandhi Peace Prize” for 2010 ?
(1) Ronald Noble
(2) Luiz Inacio Lula D’Silva
(3) Mohammed ElBaradei
(4) Aung San Suu Kyi
(5) None of these.
23. Which of the following is not a Poverty Eradication Programme launched by the Government of India ?
(1) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
(2) Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana
(3) National Social Assistance Programme
(4) AADHAAR
(5) National Family Benefit Scheme
24. According to the World Bank estimate about 40% Indians are living below International Poverty line of US $
(1) 1 per day
(2) 1.25 per day
(3) 2 per day
(4) 2.5 per day
(5) 3 per day
25. The 10th Trilateral Ministerial Meeting of RIC group was organised in November 2010. Who are the members of the RIC ?
(1) Russia – Iran – China
(2) Russia – India – China
(3) Romania – Iran – Canada
(4) Romania – Israel – Chile
(5) Russia – India – Croatia
26. India and Syria recently decided to double their trade in next 2 years. Indian Government has decided to export which of the following commodities to Syria ?
(1) Natural gas
(2) Milk
(3) OIL
(4) Wheat
(5) All of these
27. India has sanctioned a Rs. 26 million grant to which of the following countries for development of tube wells ?
(1) Myanmar
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Nepal
(4) Pakistan
(5) Sri Lanka
28. Which of the following is the name of the scheme launched by the Government of India for adolescent girls ? (Launched in November 2010)
(1) Swawlamban
(2) SABALA
(3) AADHAAR
(4) ASHA
(5) None of these
29. Many times we see in financial journals/bulletins a term M3. What is M3 ?
(1) Currency in circulation on a particular day
(2) Total value of the foreign exchange on a particular day
(3) Total value of export credit on a given date
(4) Total value of the tax collected in a year
(5) None of these
30. As per news in various newspapers, Government has allocated a huge sum of Rs. 31,000 crore for ‘RTE’. What is full form of RTE ?
(1) Right to Education
(2) Reforms in Technical Education
(3) Return to Empowerment
(4) Right to Empowerment
(5) Renewable Technology for Energy
31. Which of the following is not a major function of the RBI in India ?
(1) Issuance of currency notes
(2) To facilitate external trade and payment and developing a foreign exchange market in India
(3) Maintaining price stability and ensuring adequate flow of credit to productive sectors
(4) Taking loans/credit from World Bank/IMF and ADB etc. and reallocating it for various activities decided by the Government of India
(5) Formulation and monitoring the monetary and credit policy
32. The RBI has regional offices at various places. At which of the following places it does not have an office ?
(1) Kota
(2) Shimla
(3) Lucknow
(4) Panaji
(5) Guwahati
33. Which of the following organisations/agencies has given a US, $ 407 billion loan to India to boost up its micro finance services in unbanked areas ?
(1) IMF
(2) World Bank
(3) Bank of Japan
(4) ADB
(5) Jointly by IMF and ADB
34. The Prime Minister’s Economic Advisory Council (PMEAC) has projected that the Indian Exports will grow by what percentage during 2010-11 ?
(1) 15%
(2) 18%
(3) 22%
(4) 24%
(5) 28%
35. Which of the following organisations/agencies has given the estimate that India will be third largest FDI recipient in 2010-12 ?
(1) UNCTAD
(2) WTO
(3) World Bank
(4) IMF
(5) None of these
36. The performance of which of the following industries is considered performance of a core industry ?
(1) Garments
(2) Leather
(3) IT
(4) Oil and Petroleum
(5) Handicrafts
37. Who amongst the following is not a recipient of Nobel Prize in economics ?
(1) Peter A. Diamond
(2) Dale T. Mortensen
(3) Amartya Sen
(4) Paul Krugman
(5) Robert G. Edwards
38. Basel Committee has given its recommendations on which of the following aspects of banking operations ?
(1) Marketing of bank products
(2) Priority sector lending
(3) Risk Management
(4) Micro financing
(5) All of these
39. Which of the following is the rank of India in Human Development Report 2010 prepared by the UNO ?
(1) 99
(2) 100
(3) 115
(4) 119
(5) None of these
40. Which of the following was/were the key objectives of the RBI’s review of Monetary and Credit Policy 2010-11 which was reviewed again on 2nd November 2010 ?
(A) To sustain the anti-inflationary thrust.
(B) To maintain an interest rate regime consistent with price.
(C) To provide e^rtra tax incentives to exporters who were in stress due to market fluctuations.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (A) & (B)
(4) All (A), (B) & (C)
(5) None of these
41. PUGS is the group of nations falling under
(1) Euro zone
(2) Asia Pacific
(3) SAARC
(4) NATO
(5) Commonwealth
42. Which of the following is / are the preconditions, the IMF has put to provide bail out package to Ireland ?
(A) It should gradually lower down unemployment benefits.
(B) It should bring down the minimum wages in order to boost employment.
(C) It should import some of the crucial commodities from non euro countries as an immediate measure to improve shortage of the same.
(1) Only (A) & (B)
(2) Only (B) & (C)
(3) Only (A) & (C)
(4) Only (A)
(5) All (A), (B) & (C)
43. India is self sufficient in production of which of the following commodities ?
(1) Edible oil
(2) Milk
(3) Pulses
(4) Natural gas
(5) All of these
44. Which of the following is used as a fuel in Nuclear power stations in India ?
(1) Thorium
(2) Copper
(3) Tin
(4) Cromium
(5) All of these
45. Which of the following States has taken up the job of improving Dams with the help of the World Bank’s Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement project ?
(1) Kerala
(2) Gujarat
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Uttar Pradesh
(5) Guwahati
46. Nitish Kumar-led National Democratic Alliance won how many seats in recendy held assembly elections in Bihar ?
(1) 150
(2) 243
(3) 200
(4) 206
(5) None of these
47. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “Development as Freedom”?
(1) M. S. Swaminathan
(2) C. Rangarajan
(3) Manmohan Singh
(4) Y.V. Reddy
(5) Amartya Sen
48. Which of the following terms is used in Finance and Banking ?
(1) Line of Sight
(2) Scattering Loss
(3) Revenue
(4) Oscillation
(5) Shielding
49. Who amongst the following is a famous economist ?
(1) Richard Dawkins
(2) Alan Greenspan
(3) Vernon Heywood
(4) Olivar Sachs
(5) Stephen Hawking
50. Who amongst the following has never held post of the Governor of the RBI
(1) C. Rangarajan
(2) L. K. Jha
(3) Manmohan Singh
(4) Bimal Jalan
(5) Usha Thorat


ANSWERS:

1. [4] 6. [5] 11. [5] 16. [1] 21. [3] 26. [4] 31. [4] 36. [4] 41. [1] 46. [4]
2. [3] 7. [5] 12. [4] 17. [1] 22. [2] 27. [5] 32. [1] 37. [1] 42. [5] 47. [5]
3. [4] 8. [5] 13. [3] 18. [4] 23. [2] 28. [5] 33. [2] 38. [3] 43. [1] 48. [3]
4. [3] 9. [2] 14. [4] 19. [5] 24. [1] 29. [1] 34. [3] 39. [4] 44. [1] 49. [2]
5. [4] 10. [1] 15. [5] 20. [2] 25. [2] 30. [1] 35. [1] 40. [3] 45. [1] 50. [5]

ANDHRA BANK RECRUITMENT OF CLERKS


Andhra Bank invites applications for the Clerical Cadre posts, from Indian citizens who have taken the
Common Written Examination for Clerical cadre conducted by IBPS in 2011-12 and have a valid Score card issued by IBPS.

Payment of Application Fees                                 :   21.04.2012 to 05.05.2012
Opening date for Online Registration                     :   21.04.2012
Last Date for Online Registration
(Including for candidates from far-flung areas )       :   05.05.2012

AGE as on 01/08/2011

  • Minimum : 18 years
  • Maximum : 28 years
ELIGIBILITY
  Graduation in any stream

IBPS REQUIREMENT
Valid IBPS score obtained in Common Written Examination (CWE) for Clerks 2011-12.

SELECTION PROCEDURE
Selection for the post of Clerk will be made on the basis of performance in Common Written Examination (CWE) conducted by IBPS and/or the marks obtained in Interview.

HOW TO APPLY
( i) Candidates are required to apply online through website www.andhrabank.in No other means/ mode of application will be accepted.
(ii) Candidates should ensure that their personal email ID (as specified in the online application form while applying for Common Written Examination CWE conducted in November/ December 2011) is kept active during the currency of a recruitment project. Bank may send call letters for Group Discussion/ Interview etc. to the registered e-mail ID.
(iii) Applicants are first required to go to the Bank‟s website „www.andhrabank.in click on the link “Recruitment”
(iv) Thereafter, open the Recruitment Notification entitled “ANDHRA BANK CLERICAL CADRE’ RECRUITMENT PROJECT-2012-13”.

Recruitment Project 2012-13 – RECRUITMENT OF CLERK

CLICK here to view the Advertisement
 
CLICK here to download Fee Payment Challan
 

Punjab & Sind Bank Clerical Cadre Recruitment


Punjab & Sind Bank invites applications from Indian Citizens for the following posts :

NAME OF POST: CLERICAL CADRE - 800 POSTS

AGE as on 01/08/2011

  • Minimum : 18 years
  • Maximum : 28 years
ELIGIBILITY
Pass with minimum 60% marks in aggregate (55% for SC/ ST/PWD/Ex-Servicemen candidates) in Higher Secondary examination/ 10+2 of 10+2+3 pattern or its equivalent from a recognized Board OR Graduation in any stream Or Diploma in Banking recognized by Central/ State/ UT Govt.

IBPS REQUIREMENT
Valid IBPS score obtained in Common Written Examination (CWE) for Clerks 2011-12.

SELECTION PROCEDURE
Selection for the post of Clerk will be made on the basis of performance in Common Written Examination (CWE) conducted by IBPS and/or the marks obtained in Interview.

APPLICATION FEE
  • For SC/ST/PWD: Rs.50/- (Only Intimation & Postal Charges)
  • For all others (including OBC) : Rs.150/- (Including Intimation & Postal Charges)
IMPORTANT DATES
  • Payment of Application Fees: 02.05.2012
  • Opening date for Online Registration : 02.05.2012
  • Last Date for Online Registration : 18.05.2012
HOW TO APPLY
Applicants are first required to go to the Bank’s website www.psbindia.com and click on the Home page and open the link “Recruitment”.

MORE DETAILS : Click here

Online Apply Here 

Punjab & Sind Bank Probationary Officers Recruitment


Punjab & Sind Bank invites applications for the post of Probationary Officers from Indian citizens
who have taken the Common Written Examination for Probationary Officers/ Management
Trainees conducted by IBPS in 2011 and have a valid Score card issued by IBPS & who meet the
eligibility criteria prescribed below -

Total Post-900
No minimum IBPS Score required
Educational Qualification:Graduation in any discipline with minimum 55% marks
Payment of Application Fees: 24.04.2012
Opening date for Online Registration 24.04.2012
Last Date for Online Registration (Including candidates from far-flung areas): 10.05.2012


Click here for details

Bank of Maharashtra Recruitment of Clerks


Bank of Maharashtra invites online applications from eligible candidates for recruitment of Clerks through IBPS clerks Common Written Exam 2011. Only candidates who have appeared for CWE for Clerks conducted by Indian Banking Personnel Selection in Nov/Dec 2011 & have valid score card can apply for this job. The Recruitment Rules & Jobs Details are as follows. Candidates fulfilling the following eligibility criteria can apply for Bank of Maharashtra Clerks Vacancy.


Name of the Post : Clerk

Total No. of Vacancies : 543 Posts

Education Qualification : Pass in 10th Class / 12th Class / Degree with Valid IBPS CWE Score Card & Certificate Course in Computers.

Age Limit (As on 01.08.2011) : Minimum 18 Years – Maximum 28 Years.

Pay Scale / Salary : Rs. 7200/- TO – Rs.19300/- + HRA, DA.

Selection Procedure : IBPS CWE Score – Personal Interview

Fees : Rs. 150/- (Rs. 50/- for SC/ST)  Payable through Challan available for download at any branch of Bank of Maharashtra or any other NEFT enabled branches of other banks before applying online.

How to Apply for BOM Clerks Recruitment : through Online Application

Important Dates for BOM Recruitment :
  • Starting Date of Online Application Submission : 17-04-2012
  • Last Date to Apply : 10-05-2012
Important Links :  For more details regarding Bank of Maharashtra Clerks Recruitment, Age Limit & relaxations, Education Qualification, Selection Procedure, Exam pattern, Written Exam Syllabus, Hall Ticket, Vacancy details, Application Form, payment of Fees, Sending Application Form, Enclosures, Address etc. Refer the detailed notification from the following links.

Tuesday, April 17, 2012

Bank of India Clerical Cadre Recruitment


Bank of India, a leading Public Sector Bank having Head Office at Mumbai, invites applications for recruitment of 3149 posts in Clerical Cadre
 
Qualifications as on 01.08.2011: Pass with 50% marks in the aggregate, either in the Higher Secondary School (HSC) Examination or Standard XII under the 10+2+3 pattern or Standard XI under the 11+4 pattern or its equivalent of recognized Educational Board, acceptable to the Bank. Or a degree from UGC recognized University (Graduation level) Candidates having completed Foundation Course on Computer Awareness & Office Automation for duration of minimum 3 months from a Computer Institute, is desirable. The desirability of having completed the said Course will be waived in case of those candidates having Computer subject as part of the curriculum at the Pre- Degree / Degree level.Knowledge of Regional Language of a particular State / Union Territory for which candidate apply, is essential. Candidates possessing minimum Total Weighted Standard Score (TWSS) in the Common Written Examination (CWE) conducted by IBPS in 2011 as indicated in page 1 of this notice, should only apply.
State/UT Total
Andhra Pradesh 235
Andman & Nicobar 5
Arunachal Pradesh 4
Assam 20
Bihar 240
Chandigarh 2
Chhattisgarh 26
Delhi 41
Goa 27
Gujarat 21
Haryana 1
Jammu & Kashmir 1
Jharkhand 485
Karnataka
104
Kerala 97
Madhya Pradesh 401
Maharashtra 321
Manipur 4
Mizoram 3
Nagaland 3
Orissa 217
Puducherry
4
Punjab 102
Rajasthan 112
Sikkim 2
Tamil Nadu 159
Tripura 12
Uttarakhand 15
Uttar Pradesh 423
West Bengal 58

Pay Scale : Rs.7200 - Rs.19300 
Age : Minimum age : 18 years & Maximum age: 28 years as on 01.08.2011

Selection Procedure :Depending on the number of vacancies, only those candidates who have secured the minimum qualifying marks stipulated for Common Written Examination (C.W.E) conducted by IBPS (i.e subject wise Objective Test), have the minimum IBPS TWS score specified above and rank sufficiently high in the order of merit shall be called for a Personal interview in the ratio of 1:3. The candidates should have valid score card issued by IBPS. Mere pass in the Common Written Examination shall not vest any right in a candidate for being called for Personal Interview.Merit list of the candidates based on the aggregate marks obtained by them in Common Written Test and in Personal Interview will be prepared in descending order, under the respective SC / ST / OBC / GEN Category State-wise. The final selection will be made on the basis of this merit list. 

Note: In case of similar marks to two or more candidates the merit order of such group of candidates will be as per their aggregate written test marks and further as per their date of birth (i.e. more senior in age will be placed first before less senior in age). Candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC/PWD categories filling in “unreserved” vacancies will not be entitled for relaxation available to them in their respective category.
 
Application Fees:Application fee has to be paid in any of Bank of India Branches by computer-generated challan.

Application fees for SC/ST/PWD/Ex-service-men CandidatesNil
For all other candidates Rs.200
Probation:The selected candidates will be on Probation for a period of 6 months of active service from the date of his / her joining the Bank.

Important Dates :
• Challan available from : 16.04.2012
• Submission of on – line application commencing from : 16.04.2012
• Last date for submission of on – line application : 28.04.2012
• Payment of application fee (other than SC/ST/PWD/EXS) : 16.04.2012 to 28.04.2012
• Tentative period of interview : May – June 2012
• Relevant date of Age/Qualification/Experience reckoned as on : 01.08.2011


Candidates are requested to read the entire notice carefully.
CLICK for NOTICE

CLICK for copy of Challan

CLICK for apply online
(available only for valid IBPS – CWE Score card holders 4 PM onwards from 16/04/2012)

Candidates are advised to use IBPS – CWE Registration No. and Password to apply online.

Thursday, April 12, 2012

Bank of Baroda declared list of the selected candidates for Interview for recruitment of PO

Bank of Baroda notified the list of selected candidates for interview for recruitment of 600 Probationary Officers (PO) in Junior Management Grade Scale - I in the Bank. The interviews are tentatively held to be scheduled from 16 April 2012 to 23 April 2012.
To see the list of candidates selected for the interview in Bank of Baroda CLICK HERE
The candidates were selected on the basis of eligibility criteria notified by the bank along with cut off list prepared through a valid IBPS score obtained. The category wise minimum Cut off Marks of candidates called for Interview are 174 for General Category, 167 for OBC, 159 for SC, 149 for ST, 132 for HI, 162 for OC, and 151 for VI.
The result published by Bank of Baroda is provisional subjected to submission of required documents for eligibility at the time of interview.
Candidates can download the call letters for interview from the bank's website which shall be displayed shortly.

Dena Bank to recruit 1090 Clerical Posts

Dena Bank is likely to start its recruitment process for filling up 1090 vacant post of Clerical personnel from 17 April 2012. The recruitment process of the Dena Bank will end on 2 May 2012.
Candidates who have completed their graduation, have qualified in the Common Written Examination (CWE) for Clerks 2011-12 conducted by IBPS, and have valid score card can apply.
Dena Bank Clerk Recruitment 2012 notification will be available on the bank's website http://www.denabank.com/ from 17 April 2012 and in Employment Newspaper from 21 April 2012.