Canara Bank notified the list of selected candidates for interview for recruitment of 2000 Probationary Officers (PO) in Junior Management Grade Scale - I in the Bank. The interviews are tentatively scheduled to be held from 16 April 2012 to 23 April 2012.
List of candidates selected for Group Discussion/ Interview in Canara Bank
The candidates were selected on the basis of both eligibility criteria and cut off list prepared through a valid IBPS score obtained by them. The category wise minimum Cut off Marks of candidates called for Interview are 161 for General Category, 156 for OBC, 148 for SC, 136 for ST, 135 for OC, 114 for HI, and VI.
Candidates can download Canara Bank Interview Call Letter by entering Registration Number/ Roll Number and Password for Recruitment of Probationary Officer
Download Canara Bank Interview Call Letter for Recruitment of Probationary Officer (PO) 2011
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Thursday, April 12, 2012
Allahabad Bank Declared Interview Schedule for Recruitment of Probationary Officer 2012
Allahabad Bank will conduct interview for recruitment of 1600 General Banking Officers (PO) in Junior Management Grade Scale- I from 16 April 2012. The interview will be conducted in phases at selected centres and end on 29 April 2012. Selected candidates can refer to the interview schedule as notified by the bank.
Candidates can download the Interview Call Letter by entering Registration Number/ Roll Number and Password for Recruitment of Probationary Officer
The candidates were selected on the basis of eligibility criteria notified by the bank along with cut off list prepared through a valid IBPS score obtained.
Allahabad Bank Interview Cut Off list
Interview Schedule for Allahabad Bank for Probationary Officer Project 2012-13
Candidates can download the Interview Call Letter by entering Registration Number/ Roll Number and Password for Recruitment of Probationary Officer
The candidates were selected on the basis of eligibility criteria notified by the bank along with cut off list prepared through a valid IBPS score obtained.
Allahabad Bank Interview Cut Off list
Interview Schedule for Allahabad Bank for Probationary Officer Project 2012-13
Sunday, April 8, 2012
IBPS released State Wise and Category Wise list of PO/ Clerk Qualified Candidates
Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) declared the state wise and category wise list of candidates selected for the post of Probationary Officers/ Clerks. The institute released the list of scores obtained by candidates on the basis of Common Written Examination (CWE) within a specific range.
IBPS conducted the first CWE for Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee vacancies in the month of September/ November 2011 and the first CWE for Clerk vacancies in November/ December 2011.
IBPS released State wise and Category Wise list
IBPS conducted the first CWE for Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee vacancies in the month of September/ November 2011 and the first CWE for Clerk vacancies in November/ December 2011.
IBPS released State wise and Category Wise list
Monday, April 2, 2012
GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following are the measures of Integrated Slum Development Programme adopted in India in the 11 Five Year Plan?
1. Creating and updating database on slums.
2. Using land as a resources for housing and shelter development for slum dwellers.
3. Asking slum dwellers to apply for house loan from government.
4. Granting tenure security to slum dwellers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a)1,2 and 3
(b)1 and 2
(c)2 and 4
(d)1,2 and 4
Ans. (d)
2. Demographic divide refers to a rise in population
(a) between the age group of I to 14 years
(b) between the age group of 15 to 64 years
(c) between the age group of 65 to 74 years
(d) above 74 years
Ans. (b)
3. The total public sector outlay in the Eleventh Five Year Plan (Central, State and Union Territories) is estimated at about:
(a)Rs. 30 lakh crore
(b) Rs. 36 lakh crore
(c)Rs. 40 lakh crore
(d) Rs. 46 lakh crore
Ans. (b)
4. Which one of the following is the prescribed investment limit for medium enterprises in the manufacturing sector as per the Micro,Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006?
(a) More than Rs. 10 lakh and less than Rs. 2 crore
(b) More than Rs. 2 crore and less than Rs. 5 crore
(c) More than Rs. 5 crore and less than Rs. 10 crore
(d) More than Rs. 10 crore
Ans. (d)
5. Which one of the following statements regarding Aam Admi Bima Yojana (AABY) is not correct?
(a) It was launched in the year 2007
(b) The contribution of the Central Government and State Governments in the premium is in the ratio of 75 : 25
(c) The scheme is applicable to rural landless households
(d) It provides insurance against natural death as well as accidental death
Ans. (b)
6. Balance on capital account refers to the
(a) nation’s net exports of goods, and services
(b) nation’s net exports of financial claims
(c) nation’s net exports of international official reserve assets
(d) nation’s sum of net exports of goods, services and financial claims
Ans. (a)
7.With which one of the following does the Prebisch-Singer hypothesis deal?
(a) Terms of trade of less developed countries
(b) Terms of trade of developed countries
(c) Balance of payments of less developed countries
(d) Balance of payments of developed countries
Ans. (c)
8. The effect of trade with different production possibilities curves and identical indifference curves is to make a country.
(a) more specialized in consumption and less specialized in production
(b) more specialized in production and less specialized in consumption
(c) less specialized both in consumption and in production
(d) more specialized both in consumption and in production
Ans.(d)
9. consider the following statements:
When factor intensity reversal occurs
1. Heckscher-Ohlin trade model fads.
2. factor price equalization theorem fails.
3. elasticity of substitution of one factor for the other is much higher in the production of a commodity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)1 and3
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans. (d)
10. Under which one of the following conditions is the gain from international trade maximised?
(a) Marginal rate of transformation (MRT) in production is equal to the marginal rate of substitution (MRS) in consumption
(b) MRT in production is greater than MRS in consumption
(c) MRT in production is less than MRS in consumption
(d) MRT in production and MRS in consumption are equal to international price ratio
Ans. (a)
11. The Lorenz curve shows the relationship between
(a) asset creation and income generation
(b) population groups and their respective income shares
(c) unemployment and inflation
(d) wages, labour hours and leisure
Ans. (b)
12. Which of the following are the characteristics of the Traditional Society in Rostow’s Stage theory?
1. Limited production function.
2. No government intervention.
3. Pre-Newtonian science and technology.
4. Dominance of agricultural activity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1,2and4
(b) 1,2and3
(c) 1,3and4
(d) 2,3 ánd4
Ans. (c)
13. Which one of the following is the difference between value at
market prices and value at factor cost for a national aggregate?
(a) Value of consumption of fixed capital
(b) Value of indirect taxes net of subsidies
(c) Value of net factor income earned abroad
(d) Value of subsidies net of indirect taxes
Ans. (b)
14. Marshall-Lerner condition states that the foreign exchange market would be stable if the sum of the price elasticities of the demand for imports and the demand for exports is:
(a)greater than one
(b) less than one
(c)equal to one
(d) equal to zero
Ans. (c)
15. According to Life Cycle Hypothesis, consumption is related to which one of the following?
(a) Current income
(b) Past peak level income
(c) Life time expected income
(d) Price expectations over one’s life time
Ans. (c)
16. Keynes states that the aggregate demand function is:
(a) an increasing function of the level of employment
(b) a decreasing function of the level of employment
(c) a constant function of the level of employment
(d) not related to the level of employment
Ans. (a)
17. Which of the following are the limitations of national income estimation in India?
1. Output of non-monetized sector. -
2. Non availability of data about income of small producers or household enterprises.
3. Unreported legal income.
4. Inflation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1,2,3and4
(b) 1,2and3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (b)
18. Which one of The following is shown by the Phillips Curve?
(a) Inverse relationship between real and nominal wages
(b) Inverse relationship between the rate of inflation and rate of unemployment
(c) Positive relationship between nominal wages and the rate of employment -
(d) Positive relationship between rate of inflation and nominal wages
Ans. (b)
19. If a producer pays the price for each of the inputs that it uses, equal to its value of marginal product, then which one of the following does it earn?
(a) Positive supernormal profit
(b) Zero supernormal profit
(c) Negative supernormal profit
(d) Monopoly profit
Ans. (b)
20. The costs of factors of production, supplied by the entrepreneur himself are known as
(a) implicit costs
(b) explicit costs
(c) fixed costs
(d) variable costs
Ans. (b)
21.Which one of the following taxes/cess is levied by States in India?
(a) Tax on motor vehicles
(c) Educational cess
(b) Tax on hotels
(d) Tax on wealth
Ans. (a)
22. Which one of the following is capital receipt in government budget?
(a) Interest receipts o loans given by the Government to other parties
(b) Dividends and profits from public sector undertakings
(c) Borrowing of the Government from public
(d) Property tax receipts
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following are the characteristics of progressive tax?
I. Marginal tax rate should be increasing.
2. Marginal tax rate should be more than average tax rate.
3. Gini coefficient for the post-tax distribution of income should be less than that of pre-tax distribution.
4. Tax amount should be lump sum in nature.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1,2,3and4
(b) 1,2and3
(c) 1 and 4
(d)2 and 3
Ans. (a)
24. Consider the following statements regarding argument for free trade:
1. Free trade leads to maximization of output, income and employment.
2. Free trade prevents monopoly.
3. Free trade protects domestic industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2and3
(d) 1,2and 3
Ans. (b)
1. Creating and updating database on slums.
2. Using land as a resources for housing and shelter development for slum dwellers.
3. Asking slum dwellers to apply for house loan from government.
4. Granting tenure security to slum dwellers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a)1,2 and 3
(b)1 and 2
(c)2 and 4
(d)1,2 and 4
Ans. (d)
2. Demographic divide refers to a rise in population
(a) between the age group of I to 14 years
(b) between the age group of 15 to 64 years
(c) between the age group of 65 to 74 years
(d) above 74 years
Ans. (b)
3. The total public sector outlay in the Eleventh Five Year Plan (Central, State and Union Territories) is estimated at about:
(a)Rs. 30 lakh crore
(b) Rs. 36 lakh crore
(c)Rs. 40 lakh crore
(d) Rs. 46 lakh crore
Ans. (b)
4. Which one of the following is the prescribed investment limit for medium enterprises in the manufacturing sector as per the Micro,Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006?
(a) More than Rs. 10 lakh and less than Rs. 2 crore
(b) More than Rs. 2 crore and less than Rs. 5 crore
(c) More than Rs. 5 crore and less than Rs. 10 crore
(d) More than Rs. 10 crore
Ans. (d)
5. Which one of the following statements regarding Aam Admi Bima Yojana (AABY) is not correct?
(a) It was launched in the year 2007
(b) The contribution of the Central Government and State Governments in the premium is in the ratio of 75 : 25
(c) The scheme is applicable to rural landless households
(d) It provides insurance against natural death as well as accidental death
Ans. (b)
6. Balance on capital account refers to the
(a) nation’s net exports of goods, and services
(b) nation’s net exports of financial claims
(c) nation’s net exports of international official reserve assets
(d) nation’s sum of net exports of goods, services and financial claims
Ans. (a)
7.With which one of the following does the Prebisch-Singer hypothesis deal?
(a) Terms of trade of less developed countries
(b) Terms of trade of developed countries
(c) Balance of payments of less developed countries
(d) Balance of payments of developed countries
Ans. (c)
8. The effect of trade with different production possibilities curves and identical indifference curves is to make a country.
(a) more specialized in consumption and less specialized in production
(b) more specialized in production and less specialized in consumption
(c) less specialized both in consumption and in production
(d) more specialized both in consumption and in production
Ans.(d)
9. consider the following statements:
When factor intensity reversal occurs
1. Heckscher-Ohlin trade model fads.
2. factor price equalization theorem fails.
3. elasticity of substitution of one factor for the other is much higher in the production of a commodity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)1 and3
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans. (d)
10. Under which one of the following conditions is the gain from international trade maximised?
(a) Marginal rate of transformation (MRT) in production is equal to the marginal rate of substitution (MRS) in consumption
(b) MRT in production is greater than MRS in consumption
(c) MRT in production is less than MRS in consumption
(d) MRT in production and MRS in consumption are equal to international price ratio
Ans. (a)
11. The Lorenz curve shows the relationship between
(a) asset creation and income generation
(b) population groups and their respective income shares
(c) unemployment and inflation
(d) wages, labour hours and leisure
Ans. (b)
12. Which of the following are the characteristics of the Traditional Society in Rostow’s Stage theory?
1. Limited production function.
2. No government intervention.
3. Pre-Newtonian science and technology.
4. Dominance of agricultural activity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1,2and4
(b) 1,2and3
(c) 1,3and4
(d) 2,3 ánd4
Ans. (c)
13. Which one of the following is the difference between value at
market prices and value at factor cost for a national aggregate?
(a) Value of consumption of fixed capital
(b) Value of indirect taxes net of subsidies
(c) Value of net factor income earned abroad
(d) Value of subsidies net of indirect taxes
Ans. (b)
14. Marshall-Lerner condition states that the foreign exchange market would be stable if the sum of the price elasticities of the demand for imports and the demand for exports is:
(a)greater than one
(b) less than one
(c)equal to one
(d) equal to zero
Ans. (c)
15. According to Life Cycle Hypothesis, consumption is related to which one of the following?
(a) Current income
(b) Past peak level income
(c) Life time expected income
(d) Price expectations over one’s life time
Ans. (c)
16. Keynes states that the aggregate demand function is:
(a) an increasing function of the level of employment
(b) a decreasing function of the level of employment
(c) a constant function of the level of employment
(d) not related to the level of employment
Ans. (a)
17. Which of the following are the limitations of national income estimation in India?
1. Output of non-monetized sector. -
2. Non availability of data about income of small producers or household enterprises.
3. Unreported legal income.
4. Inflation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1,2,3and4
(b) 1,2and3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (b)
18. Which one of The following is shown by the Phillips Curve?
(a) Inverse relationship between real and nominal wages
(b) Inverse relationship between the rate of inflation and rate of unemployment
(c) Positive relationship between nominal wages and the rate of employment -
(d) Positive relationship between rate of inflation and nominal wages
Ans. (b)
19. If a producer pays the price for each of the inputs that it uses, equal to its value of marginal product, then which one of the following does it earn?
(a) Positive supernormal profit
(b) Zero supernormal profit
(c) Negative supernormal profit
(d) Monopoly profit
Ans. (b)
20. The costs of factors of production, supplied by the entrepreneur himself are known as
(a) implicit costs
(b) explicit costs
(c) fixed costs
(d) variable costs
Ans. (b)
21.Which one of the following taxes/cess is levied by States in India?
(a) Tax on motor vehicles
(c) Educational cess
(b) Tax on hotels
(d) Tax on wealth
Ans. (a)
22. Which one of the following is capital receipt in government budget?
(a) Interest receipts o loans given by the Government to other parties
(b) Dividends and profits from public sector undertakings
(c) Borrowing of the Government from public
(d) Property tax receipts
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following are the characteristics of progressive tax?
I. Marginal tax rate should be increasing.
2. Marginal tax rate should be more than average tax rate.
3. Gini coefficient for the post-tax distribution of income should be less than that of pre-tax distribution.
4. Tax amount should be lump sum in nature.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1,2,3and4
(b) 1,2and3
(c) 1 and 4
(d)2 and 3
Ans. (a)
24. Consider the following statements regarding argument for free trade:
1. Free trade leads to maximization of output, income and employment.
2. Free trade prevents monopoly.
3. Free trade protects domestic industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2and3
(d) 1,2and 3
Ans. (b)
Wednesday, March 28, 2012
Indian Overseas Bank 1500 Probationary Officers Recruitment
Indian Overseas Bank (IOB) was established in 1937 by Shri M Ct M Chidambaram Chettyar to encourage overseas banking and foreign exchange operations. The bank is based in Chennai (Madras) with 2555 domestic branches and six branches overseas. The bank invites application from eligible candidates for recruitment to the post of Probationary Officers on probation for a period of two years.
Name of the Post & Number of Vacancies
Probationary Officer: 1500 vacancies
Important Dates
- Opening date for online registration/ payment of application fee: 30 March 2012
- Closing date for online registration/ payment of application fee: 19 April 2012
- Tentative date for Interview: May/ June 2012
- Educational Qualification: A Degree in any discipline from a recognised university/ Institution with minimum 60% Marks (55% for SC/ ST/ OBC/ PWD).
- IBPS Score Requirement: Valid IBPS score obtained in Common Written Examination (CWE) for Probationary Officers (POs) / Management Trainees (MTs) 2011-12 with a minimum score of 120 for
General category and 105 for SC/ ST/OBC/ PWD category.
NOTE: Candidates should also secure minimum marks, i.e. 24 for General category and 21 for Reserved Categories, in each subject including descriptive test in CWE. - Essential Qualification: Candidate should be Computer literate which the candidate must either possess before or acquire within six months of joining the Bank.
- Desirable Qualification: Diploma in Banking & Finance (DBF) from Indian Institute Of Banking and Finance (IIBF) is a besides the above entry level qualification.
- Age Limit (as on 1 July 2011): Minimum 21 years, Maximum 30 years
Selection Procedure: Candidates shall be selected on the basis of interview (50 marks). Minimum qualifying marks in the Interview will be 22.50 marks for General Category and 20 marks for SC/ ST/ OBC/ PC Candidates.
Final selection will be made on the basis of aggregate marks obtained by the candidates in the Common Written Examination (CWE) conducted by IBPS in Sept / Nov 2011 & Interview and will be strictly according to the merit ranking.
Interview Centres: The personal interview will be tentatively held at major centres of the country and address of the same will be advised in the interview call letters.
Application Fee: Fee for General and OBC category candidates is Rs 200 and fee for SC/ ST/ PWD category candidates is Rs 50.
The fee can be paid either in the form of Payment Receipt Challan which will be available on the bank's website from 30 March 2012. The fee needs to be remitted in any of Indian Overseas Bank's branches by means of cash only and collect candidate's copy of Payment Receipt Challan for the application fee/ postage charge paid. Candidates should ensure that the following information has been correctly entered (1) Branch Name & Code Number (2) Transaction ID (3) Date of deposit and amount.
How to Apply: Candidates need to apply online on the bank's website http://www.iob.in No other means/ mode of application will be accepted. The registration number and password generated should be retained for future reference.
Candidates should submit the candidate's copy of Payment Receipt Challan along with the call letter and all other documents as advised in this notification at the time of Interview failing which the candidate will not be admitted for the Interview.
For more information, please CLICK HERE
DENA BANK 500 P.O RECRUITMENT
Dena Bank was founded on 26 May 1938 by the family of Devkaran Nanjee under the name Devkaran Nanjee Banking Company Ltd. It became a Public Ltd. Company in December 1939 and later the name was changed to Dena Bank Ltd. It is one among six Public Sector Banks selected by the World Bank for sanctioning a loan of Rs 72.3 crores for augmentation of Tier-II Capital under Financial Sector Developmental project in the year 1995. The bank invites application from eligible candidates for recruitment to the post of Probationary Officers on probation for a period of two years.
Name of the Post & Number of Vacancies
Probationary Officer: 500 vacancies
Important Dates
- Opening date for online registration/ payment of application fee: 28 March 2012
- Closing date for online registration/ payment of application fee: 12 April 2012
- Last date for Reprint of application form: 27 April 2012
Educational Qualification: A Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Government of India.
IBPS Score Requirement: Valid IBPS score obtained in Common Written Examination (CWE) for Probationary Officers (POs) / Management Trainees (MTs) 2011-12 with a minimum score of 130 for General category and 125 for SC/ ST/OBC/ PWD category.
NOTE: Candidates should also secure minimum marks, i.e. 24 for General category and 21 for Reserved Categories, in each subject including descriptive test in CWE.
Age Limit (as on 1 July 2011): Minimum 21 years, Maximum 30 years
Pay Scale: Rs 14500 - 600 x 7/ 18700 -700 x 2/ 20100 - 800 x 7/ 25700
Selection Procedure: Candidates shall be selected on the basis of interview (100 marks) in order of merit of IBPS score card in the ratio as decided by the Bank (keeping in view the minimum criteria of 1:4 (1:5 in case of SC/ ST/ OBC/ PWD).
Minimum qualifying marks in the interview will be 40% (35% in case of SC/ ST/ OBC/ PWD candidates). Marks obtained in interview will be reckoned for merit ranking. Candidate not passing in interview will not be considered for final selection.
However, bank reserves the right to change the selection strategy and hold Group Discussion and/or Interview.In case of Bank conducting Group Discussion, the same will be of qualifying nature prior to interview round. Group Discussion will be of 50 marks and those candidates who score minimum qualifying marks in Group Discussion, i.e. 40% for General category and 35% for SC/ST/OBC/PWD, will be called for interview. Marks scored in Group Discussion will not be considered for merit ranking.
Interview Centres: The personal interview will be tentatively held at major centres of the country.
Application Fee: Fee for General and OBC category candidates is Rs 200 and fee for SC/ ST/ PWD category candidates is Rs 50.
The fee can be paid either in the form of Payment challan by visiting nearest Dena Bank's Branch or by way of ‘NEFT' by visiting any Scheduled Commercial Bank. Candidates must write his/her name, Contact Number (Mobile/Phone number) and address and post applied for on the reverse of the Fees Payment Challan /NEFT.
- Payment Challan: Go to the nearest Dena Bank Branch with the Fee payment Challan and pay, in Cash, the appropriate Application Fee in CBS Account Nos. 116211021139 with Corporate Business Branch, BKC, Mumbai - 51 in the name & style of "Dena Bank - Rectt Pro for PO - 2012".
- NEFT: Go to the nearest branch of any Bank who is listed by RBI under RTGS/ NEFT System and pay the appropriate Application Fee in Account No. 116211021139 with Corporate Business Branch, BKC, Mumbai - 51 in the name & style of "Dena Bank - Rectt Pro for PO - 2012". Obtain the applicant's copy of Counterfoil of the Application Fee duly receipted by the Bank with (a) Branch Name & Code Number, (b) UTR Number, (c) date of Deposit & amount filled by the Branch Official.
Original counterfoil of the fee payment challan/ NEFT Receipt will have to be submitted with the Call Letter at the time of Interview. Without original fee payment challan/ NEFT receipt the candidate will not be allowed to appear in the Group Discussion/ Interview.
Apply Online
Specimen Copy of Fee Payment Challan
Tuesday, March 27, 2012
GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE MCQs
1. Which of the following is one of the major functions of the RBI ?
(A) Maintain India Investment Fund created by the Govt. of India
(B) Act as custodian of the foreign exchange reserves of the country
(C) Appoint (CEOs) of the foreign banks in India
(D) Appoint Finance Secretary to the Govt. of India
(E) Decide exchange rates of currencies like Yen, Yuan and Dollars
Ans : (B)
2. Who among the following is a regulator of financial/banking institutes / organizations in India ?
(A) Indian Bureau of Standards, (B) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
(C) Central Bureau of Investigation, (D) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(E) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Ans : (E)
3. Who among the following is the Union Minister of Commerce, Industry and Textiles at present in India ?
(A) Sri Anand Sharma, (B) Dr. Farooq Abdullah, (C) Sri Ghulam Nabi Azad
(D) Sri Kapil Sibbal, (E) None of these
Ans : (A)
4. Which of the following terms is used in the field of Banking / Finance ?
(A) Reflex Action, (B) RH Factor, (C) Active Asset, (D) Amendment, (E) Statement of Fact
Ans : (C)
5. Which of the following is the period of the 12th Five Year Plan of India ?
(A) 2011–16 , (B) 2010–15, (C) 2012–17, (D) 2013–18, (E) 2009–14
Ans : (C)
6. Which of the following books is written by Arundhati Roy ?
(A) India Wins Freedom, (B) The God of Small Things, (C) A Himalayan Love Story
(D) A Bend in the River, (E) Adversary in the House
Ans : (B)
7. What does the letter ‘R’ denote in the term ‘RTGS’ as used in the field of banking ?
(A) Real , (B) Reasonable, (C) Rotation, (D) Rate, (E) Repo
Ans : (A)
8. Bertrand Tavernier who was honoured by Life Time Achievement Award in 42nd International Film Festival of India in November 2011 is a citizen of—
(A) India , (B) U.S.A., (C) Germany, (D) France, (E) Britain
Ans : (D)
9. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket ?
(A) Love , (B) Knock-out, (C) Deuce, (D) Silly Point, (E) Dribble
Ans : (D)
10. Which of the following is the sensitive index of National Stock Exchange ?
(A) Nifty , (B) Sensex, (C) MCX, (D) CNX, (E) ETF
Ans : (B)
11. Who among the following is the Chief Minister of Rajasthan at present ?
(A) Sri Mukul Vasnik, (B) Sri Kamal Nath, (C) Sri Ashok Gehlot, (D) Sri Ashok Chandra Meena
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
12. Novelist Julian Barnes who won Man Booker Prize for his book recently is a citizen of—
(A) France , (B) Australia, (C) U. S. A., (D) Britain, (E) Germany
Ans : (D)
13. Muammar Gaddafi who died recently was a political leader of—
(A) Egypt , (B) Syria, (C) Kenya, (D) Turkey, (E) Libya
Ans : (E)
14. Steve Jobs was associated with which of the following fields ?
(A) Computers , (B) Sports, (C) Films, (D) Politics, (E) Literature
Ans : (A)
15. Nobel Prizes, which were announced recently, are not given in the field of—
(A) Physics, (B) Chemistry, (C) Medicine, (D) Economics, (E) Civil Administration
Ans : (E)
16. The 51st National Open Athletics Championship was held in September 2011 in—
(A) Hyderabad , (B) Mumbai, (C) Delhi, (D) Kolkata, (E) Ranchi
Ans : (D)
17. Which of the following is grown in Maharashtra in abundance ?
(A) Black Pepper , (B) Tea, (C) Jute, (D) Cotton, (E) Rubber
Ans : (D)
18. Govt. of India has made a special agreement with U.S.A. to develop which of the following modes of power generation in India ?
(A) Hydro power, (B) Thermal power, (C) Wind power, (D) Nuclear power, (E) All of these
Ans : (D)
19. Which of the following is a programme to develop Health Services in Rural India ?
(A) NHDP , (B) JNNORM, (C) ASHA, (D) MGNREGA, (E) RAY
Ans : (C)
20. Head Office of which of the following banks is in Delhi ?
(A) Punjab National Bank, (B) Bank of India, (C) UCO Bank, (D) Corporation Bank, (E) None
Ans : (A)
21. The Cattle Mela takes place in which of the following cities in Rajasthan ?
(A) Jodhpur , (B) Bharatpur, (C) Bikaner, (D) Jaipur, (E) Pushkar
Ans : (B)
22. Which of the following is the biggest stock exchange of India where maximum number of transactions take place every day ?
(A) Delhi , (B) Ahmedabad, (C) Mumbai, (D) Bengaluru, (E) Kolkata
Ans : (C)
23. The Atomic Power Station is located in which of the following places in Karnataka ?
(A) Kaiga , (B) Trombay, (C) Mangalore, (D) Hassan, (E) None of these
Ans : (A)
24. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the organization working for the welfare of the children ?
(A) CII , (B) BAFTA, (C) CRY, (D) NATO, (E) None of these
Ans : (C)
25. The World Environment Day is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) July 25 , (B) June 5, (C) April 5, (D) December 15, (E) None of these
Ans : (B)
26. Saina Nehwal who was in news recently is associated with the game of—
(A) Football , (B) Badminton, (C) Basket Ball, (D) Hockey, (E) Chess
Ans : (B)
27. Who amongst the following is a member of SAARC ?
(A) Indonesia , (B) Pakistan, (C) Kuwait, (D) Iraq, (E) Fiji
Ans : (B)
28. Who amongst the following is the author of the book Diamond Dust and Other Stories ?
(A) Amrita Pritam, (B) Mulkraj Anand, (C) Anita Desai, (D) Chetan Bhagat, (E) Khushwant Singh
Ans : (C)
29. ‘Subrato Cup’ is associated with the game of—
(A) Cricket , (B) Badminton, (C) Hockey, (D) Football, (E) None of these
Ans : (D)
30. Which of the following instruments is normally used by the medical professionals ?
(A) Stroboscope, (B) Stethoscope, (C) Photometer, (D) Thermoscope, (E) None of these
Ans : (B)
31. Polio is caused by a—
(A) Fungus , (B) Bacteria, (C) Virus, (D) Either (A) or (B), (E) None of these
Ans : (C)
32. Pulitzer Prize is given for contribution in the field of—
(A) Literature , (B) Sports, (C) Politics, (D) Cinema, (E) None of these
Ans : (A)
33. ‘Taka’ is the monetary unit of—
(A) Saudi Arabia, (B) Iraq, (C) Kuwait, (D) Afghanistan, (E) Bangladesh
Ans : (E)
34. Who among the following is the Vice President of India at present ?
(A) Ms. Meira Kumar, (B) Smt. Sonia Gandhi, (C) Mr. M. Hamid Ansari, (D) Sri Rajiv Shukla, (E) None
Ans : (C)
35. Which is the name of a country ?
(A) Lira , (B) Euro, (C) Peso, (D) Botswana, (E) Londo
Ans : (D)
36. Which of the following terms is used in the field of Physics ?
(A) Quarrying , (B) Herbal, (C) Halite, (D) Radiation, (E) Fern
Ans : (D)
37. Which of the following is the Capital of Vietnam ?
(A) Jakarta , (B) Manila, (C) Hanoi, (D) Prague, (E) Suva
Ans : (C)
38. Economy of which of the following countries is passing through a crisis and the Govt. is seeking help of European Union countries to stabilize the same ?
(A) Greece , (B) Russia, (C) China, (D) Japan, (E) Canada
Ans : (A)
39. Which of the following is not a metal ?
(A) Gold , (B) Silver, (C) Zinc, (D) Copper, (E) Sulphur
Ans : (E)
40. Who among the following is the President of Italy at present ?
(A) Michael D. Higgins, (B) Giorgio Napolitano, (C) Mario Monti, (D) Joe Biden, (E) None
Ans : (B)
41. ‘Manhattan’ is a town/city in—
(A) United Kingdom, (B) Canada, (C) Australia, (D) Japan, (E) U.S.A.
Ans : (E)
42. Term ‘Insider Trading’ is associated with—
(A) Stock markets, (B) Defence services, (C) Parliamentary procedures, (D) Book publishing business, (E) Sports
Ans : (A)
43. Which of the following agencies/bodies controls Football matches at international levels ?
(A) FIFA , (B) BCCI, (C) ATP, (D) MCC, (E) FEDAI
Ans : (A)
44. Which of the following Awards is given to a Sportsperson for his/her excellent performance ?
(A) Kalidas Sanman, (B) Arjuna Award, (C) Dadasaheb Phalke Award, (D) Saraswati Puraskar
(E) Dronacharya Award
Ans : (B)
45. Who amongst the following was the captain of the Indian team which won ICC Cricket World Cup ?
(A) Virender Sehwag, (B) Yuvraj Singh, (C) Sachin Tendulkar, (D) Yusuf Pathan, (E) None of these
Ans : (E)
46. Which of the following films is directed by Karan Johar for which he got Filmfare Award for Best Director 2011 ?
(A) Rockstar, (B) Ra-One, (C) Dhobi Ghat, (D) Chalo Dilli, (E) My Name is Khan
Ans : (E)
47. Who amongst the following is a famous Lawn Tennis player and has represented India in many Sports events ?
(A) Anjali Bhagwat, (B) Sunita Rani, (C) Mayookha Johny, (D) Anju Bobby George, (E) Sania Mirza
Ans : (E)
48. Which of the following is not an anti poverty scheme launched by the Govt. of India ?
(A) Bharat Nirman, (B) MG National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(C) Annapurna Yojana, (D) Antyodaya Yojana, (E) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana
Ans : (C)
49. Who amongst the following is a famous Author ?
(A) Roger Federer, (B) Kiran Desai, (C) Ms. Meira Kumar, (D) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi, (E) Neha Dhupia
Ans : (B)
50. What is the full form of ‘IMF’ ?
(A) Indian Money Fund, (B) International Monetary Fund
(C) International Money Forum, (D) Institute of Money and Finance
(E) Indian Monetary Fund
Ans : (B)
(A) Maintain India Investment Fund created by the Govt. of India
(B) Act as custodian of the foreign exchange reserves of the country
(C) Appoint (CEOs) of the foreign banks in India
(D) Appoint Finance Secretary to the Govt. of India
(E) Decide exchange rates of currencies like Yen, Yuan and Dollars
Ans : (B)
2. Who among the following is a regulator of financial/banking institutes / organizations in India ?
(A) Indian Bureau of Standards, (B) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
(C) Central Bureau of Investigation, (D) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(E) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Ans : (E)
3. Who among the following is the Union Minister of Commerce, Industry and Textiles at present in India ?
(A) Sri Anand Sharma, (B) Dr. Farooq Abdullah, (C) Sri Ghulam Nabi Azad
(D) Sri Kapil Sibbal, (E) None of these
Ans : (A)
4. Which of the following terms is used in the field of Banking / Finance ?
(A) Reflex Action, (B) RH Factor, (C) Active Asset, (D) Amendment, (E) Statement of Fact
Ans : (C)
5. Which of the following is the period of the 12th Five Year Plan of India ?
(A) 2011–16 , (B) 2010–15, (C) 2012–17, (D) 2013–18, (E) 2009–14
Ans : (C)
6. Which of the following books is written by Arundhati Roy ?
(A) India Wins Freedom, (B) The God of Small Things, (C) A Himalayan Love Story
(D) A Bend in the River, (E) Adversary in the House
Ans : (B)
7. What does the letter ‘R’ denote in the term ‘RTGS’ as used in the field of banking ?
(A) Real , (B) Reasonable, (C) Rotation, (D) Rate, (E) Repo
Ans : (A)
8. Bertrand Tavernier who was honoured by Life Time Achievement Award in 42nd International Film Festival of India in November 2011 is a citizen of—
(A) India , (B) U.S.A., (C) Germany, (D) France, (E) Britain
Ans : (D)
9. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket ?
(A) Love , (B) Knock-out, (C) Deuce, (D) Silly Point, (E) Dribble
Ans : (D)
10. Which of the following is the sensitive index of National Stock Exchange ?
(A) Nifty , (B) Sensex, (C) MCX, (D) CNX, (E) ETF
Ans : (B)
11. Who among the following is the Chief Minister of Rajasthan at present ?
(A) Sri Mukul Vasnik, (B) Sri Kamal Nath, (C) Sri Ashok Gehlot, (D) Sri Ashok Chandra Meena
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
12. Novelist Julian Barnes who won Man Booker Prize for his book recently is a citizen of—
(A) France , (B) Australia, (C) U. S. A., (D) Britain, (E) Germany
Ans : (D)
13. Muammar Gaddafi who died recently was a political leader of—
(A) Egypt , (B) Syria, (C) Kenya, (D) Turkey, (E) Libya
Ans : (E)
14. Steve Jobs was associated with which of the following fields ?
(A) Computers , (B) Sports, (C) Films, (D) Politics, (E) Literature
Ans : (A)
15. Nobel Prizes, which were announced recently, are not given in the field of—
(A) Physics, (B) Chemistry, (C) Medicine, (D) Economics, (E) Civil Administration
Ans : (E)
16. The 51st National Open Athletics Championship was held in September 2011 in—
(A) Hyderabad , (B) Mumbai, (C) Delhi, (D) Kolkata, (E) Ranchi
Ans : (D)
17. Which of the following is grown in Maharashtra in abundance ?
(A) Black Pepper , (B) Tea, (C) Jute, (D) Cotton, (E) Rubber
Ans : (D)
18. Govt. of India has made a special agreement with U.S.A. to develop which of the following modes of power generation in India ?
(A) Hydro power, (B) Thermal power, (C) Wind power, (D) Nuclear power, (E) All of these
Ans : (D)
19. Which of the following is a programme to develop Health Services in Rural India ?
(A) NHDP , (B) JNNORM, (C) ASHA, (D) MGNREGA, (E) RAY
Ans : (C)
20. Head Office of which of the following banks is in Delhi ?
(A) Punjab National Bank, (B) Bank of India, (C) UCO Bank, (D) Corporation Bank, (E) None
Ans : (A)
21. The Cattle Mela takes place in which of the following cities in Rajasthan ?
(A) Jodhpur , (B) Bharatpur, (C) Bikaner, (D) Jaipur, (E) Pushkar
Ans : (B)
22. Which of the following is the biggest stock exchange of India where maximum number of transactions take place every day ?
(A) Delhi , (B) Ahmedabad, (C) Mumbai, (D) Bengaluru, (E) Kolkata
Ans : (C)
23. The Atomic Power Station is located in which of the following places in Karnataka ?
(A) Kaiga , (B) Trombay, (C) Mangalore, (D) Hassan, (E) None of these
Ans : (A)
24. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the organization working for the welfare of the children ?
(A) CII , (B) BAFTA, (C) CRY, (D) NATO, (E) None of these
Ans : (C)
25. The World Environment Day is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) July 25 , (B) June 5, (C) April 5, (D) December 15, (E) None of these
Ans : (B)
26. Saina Nehwal who was in news recently is associated with the game of—
(A) Football , (B) Badminton, (C) Basket Ball, (D) Hockey, (E) Chess
Ans : (B)
27. Who amongst the following is a member of SAARC ?
(A) Indonesia , (B) Pakistan, (C) Kuwait, (D) Iraq, (E) Fiji
Ans : (B)
28. Who amongst the following is the author of the book Diamond Dust and Other Stories ?
(A) Amrita Pritam, (B) Mulkraj Anand, (C) Anita Desai, (D) Chetan Bhagat, (E) Khushwant Singh
Ans : (C)
29. ‘Subrato Cup’ is associated with the game of—
(A) Cricket , (B) Badminton, (C) Hockey, (D) Football, (E) None of these
Ans : (D)
30. Which of the following instruments is normally used by the medical professionals ?
(A) Stroboscope, (B) Stethoscope, (C) Photometer, (D) Thermoscope, (E) None of these
Ans : (B)
31. Polio is caused by a—
(A) Fungus , (B) Bacteria, (C) Virus, (D) Either (A) or (B), (E) None of these
Ans : (C)
32. Pulitzer Prize is given for contribution in the field of—
(A) Literature , (B) Sports, (C) Politics, (D) Cinema, (E) None of these
Ans : (A)
33. ‘Taka’ is the monetary unit of—
(A) Saudi Arabia, (B) Iraq, (C) Kuwait, (D) Afghanistan, (E) Bangladesh
Ans : (E)
34. Who among the following is the Vice President of India at present ?
(A) Ms. Meira Kumar, (B) Smt. Sonia Gandhi, (C) Mr. M. Hamid Ansari, (D) Sri Rajiv Shukla, (E) None
Ans : (C)
35. Which is the name of a country ?
(A) Lira , (B) Euro, (C) Peso, (D) Botswana, (E) Londo
Ans : (D)
36. Which of the following terms is used in the field of Physics ?
(A) Quarrying , (B) Herbal, (C) Halite, (D) Radiation, (E) Fern
Ans : (D)
37. Which of the following is the Capital of Vietnam ?
(A) Jakarta , (B) Manila, (C) Hanoi, (D) Prague, (E) Suva
Ans : (C)
38. Economy of which of the following countries is passing through a crisis and the Govt. is seeking help of European Union countries to stabilize the same ?
(A) Greece , (B) Russia, (C) China, (D) Japan, (E) Canada
Ans : (A)
39. Which of the following is not a metal ?
(A) Gold , (B) Silver, (C) Zinc, (D) Copper, (E) Sulphur
Ans : (E)
40. Who among the following is the President of Italy at present ?
(A) Michael D. Higgins, (B) Giorgio Napolitano, (C) Mario Monti, (D) Joe Biden, (E) None
Ans : (B)
41. ‘Manhattan’ is a town/city in—
(A) United Kingdom, (B) Canada, (C) Australia, (D) Japan, (E) U.S.A.
Ans : (E)
42. Term ‘Insider Trading’ is associated with—
(A) Stock markets, (B) Defence services, (C) Parliamentary procedures, (D) Book publishing business, (E) Sports
Ans : (A)
43. Which of the following agencies/bodies controls Football matches at international levels ?
(A) FIFA , (B) BCCI, (C) ATP, (D) MCC, (E) FEDAI
Ans : (A)
44. Which of the following Awards is given to a Sportsperson for his/her excellent performance ?
(A) Kalidas Sanman, (B) Arjuna Award, (C) Dadasaheb Phalke Award, (D) Saraswati Puraskar
(E) Dronacharya Award
Ans : (B)
45. Who amongst the following was the captain of the Indian team which won ICC Cricket World Cup ?
(A) Virender Sehwag, (B) Yuvraj Singh, (C) Sachin Tendulkar, (D) Yusuf Pathan, (E) None of these
Ans : (E)
46. Which of the following films is directed by Karan Johar for which he got Filmfare Award for Best Director 2011 ?
(A) Rockstar, (B) Ra-One, (C) Dhobi Ghat, (D) Chalo Dilli, (E) My Name is Khan
Ans : (E)
47. Who amongst the following is a famous Lawn Tennis player and has represented India in many Sports events ?
(A) Anjali Bhagwat, (B) Sunita Rani, (C) Mayookha Johny, (D) Anju Bobby George, (E) Sania Mirza
Ans : (E)
48. Which of the following is not an anti poverty scheme launched by the Govt. of India ?
(A) Bharat Nirman, (B) MG National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(C) Annapurna Yojana, (D) Antyodaya Yojana, (E) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana
Ans : (C)
49. Who amongst the following is a famous Author ?
(A) Roger Federer, (B) Kiran Desai, (C) Ms. Meira Kumar, (D) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi, (E) Neha Dhupia
Ans : (B)
50. What is the full form of ‘IMF’ ?
(A) Indian Money Fund, (B) International Monetary Fund
(C) International Money Forum, (D) Institute of Money and Finance
(E) Indian Monetary Fund
Ans : (B)
Saturday, March 24, 2012
Bank of Baroda Recruitment for 2000 Clerks
Bank of Baroda invites applications for Clerical post from Indian citizens who have taken the Common Written Examination for Clerical cadre conducted by IBPS in 2011 (details of state-wise, category-wise vacancies and cut-off marks as given below) subject to fulfillment of other eligibility criteria.
Clerical
Total Posts: 2000Salary : Basic Pay in Time Scale of Rs.7200 – 19300 plus DA, HRA, etc. as per Bipartite Settlement amended from time to time.
Age Limit: Minimum 18 years and Maximum 28 years
Educational Qualification : Graduate degree in any discipline from a recognized University in India, OR any equivalent qualification recognized as such by Central Government
Essential Requirement :
- IBPS Score obtained in CWE for Clerks 2011 (as stipulated above)
- Candidates should have appeared from a centre in a State/UT for which vacancies he/she wishes to apply.
- Should be able to read, write and speak English.
- Should possess proficiency in the official language of the State/ UT (ability to read, write and speak local/State language) in which they have appeared for the Common Written Examination and in which they have qualified.
- Should be computer literate (proficient in MS Office Basic Applications).
Fee:
- SC/ ST/ Persons with Disability (PWD) = Rs.50/-
- GEN/ OBC = Rs.150/-
How To Apply:
- Candidates are required to apply Online through website www.bankofbaroda.com. No other means/ mode of application will be accepted.
- Candidates are required to have a valid personal email ID and Contact No. (the same email ID and Contact Number as registered with IBPS CWE Clerk 2011). It should be kept active during the currency of this recruitment project. Bank may send call letters for interview through the registered email ID. Under no circumstances, he/she should share/ mention email ID to/ or of any other person.
- Applicants are first required to go to the Bank's website www.bankofbaroda.com and open the link 'Careers - Ongoing Recruitment Exercises'. Thereafter, open the Recruitment Notification entitled Bank of Baroda 'RECRUITMENT OF CLERICAL PERSONNEL - PROJECT 2012'.
Important Dates:
- Payment of Application Fees : 24.03.2012 to 10.04.2012
- Opening date for Online Registration : 24.03.2012
- Last Date for Online Registration (Including for candidates from far-flung areas ) : 10.04.2012
Friday, March 23, 2012
IBPS General Awareness & Computer Knowledge Practice Questions
1. Which of the following statement (s) reflects India’s stand on new World Trade Organization’s proposal on the issue of the subsidy to agro products ?
(1) India would protect the interest of its poor farmers who can not bear the burden of the cost of the products if they have to sell them on cheaper rate.
(2) Indian industry needs more flexibility as compared to the industry in developed countries.
(3) WTO has set up a new committee under the chairmanship of Putin of Russia to look into the issue of subsidy and find out a solution to the problem acceptable to all the parties.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
ANS: (A)
2. Which of the following statement (s) is / are true about the 11th five year plan of India ?
(1) The highest priority is given to exports ,education and development of steel sector.
(2) The plan aims at achieving the growth at 10 % level by the end of the plan.
(3) The Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana is revived in such a way so that it can be achieve a growth no. of 4 % for agriculture sector.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
ANS: (D)
3. As per the figures released recently the Stock markets in emerging economies made handsome returns last year (2007-08). Which of the following stock markets amongst the BRIC nations registered highest increased (97 %) compared to its performance in 2006-07 ?
(A) China
(B) Brazil
(C) Russia
(D) India
(E) None of these
ANS: (D)
4. Bayana which was in news recently is a place in -
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) Haryana
(E) Rajasthan
ANS: (E)
5. Which of the following statement (s) is / are correct about the Indo-Russia Bilateral Defense Ties ?
(1) Both the countries have decided to produce a fifth generation fighter aircraft and a multi role cargo plane.
(2) India has agreed to launch Russian missiles from its base at Chandipur incase some other nation attacks on Russia
(3) India and Russia were able to sort out differences over the utilization of Rupee debt fund which is of Rs. 8000 Crore at present.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 3 only
(E) None of these
ANS: (A)
6. India has recently decided to put a wire fence on the 76 km. long border in Dhudri district in Assam. The fence will separate India from –
(A) Nepal
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Myanmar
(E) Pakistan
ANS: (C)
7. As we all know the Govt. of India is very keen about providing banking service to the people in rural and remote areas . However , banks feel that the cost of providing services in these areas for financial inclusion is quite high if services are offered through the “traditional branch channel “. What is / are the other alternative cost effective channel (s) to fulfill this aim of the Govt. of India ?
(1) Putting biometric ATMs.
(2) Introduce mobile banking.
(3) Issue credit or debit cards
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
ANS: (B)
8. The Govt. of India recently issued a notification altering constituencies in 24 States and Union territories. This is done as per the provision of which of the following Acts?
(A) Delimitation Act
(B) Census Act
(C) Parliament Act
(D) State Reorganization Act
(E) None of these
ANS: (A)
9. As we read very frequently in the newspaper fraudulent activities in financial world is still continuing despite various efforts made by various countries to prevent them. As an estimate by IMF, what is the probable amount derived from such illegal activities which is laundered through the world’s formal financial systems every year? About –
(A) US$ 500 billion
(B) US$ 800 billion
(C) US$ 1000 billion
(D) US$ 1250 billion
(E) US$ 1500 billion
ANS: (D)
10. Indian Prime Minister during his visit the Arunachal Pradesh a few months back asserted that the State is India’s Land of Rising Sun. Which of the following countries did not like his statement and had raised some objection over his visit to Arunachal Pradesh which is very much a part of India?
(A) Myanmar
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Bhutan
(E) Nepal
ANS: (B)
11. Which of the following is the amount of insurance cover provided to the workers of the unorganized sector under Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana?
(A) Rs. 10,000/-
(B) Rs. 20,000/-
(C) Rs. 30,000/-
(D) Rs. 40,000/-
(E) Rs. 50,000/-
ANS: (C)
12. Which of the following is NOT one of the highlights Economic Survey presented in the Lok Sabha for the year 2007-08?
(A) Economy has “moved to higher growth phase”
(B) A trend of acceleration in domestic investment and saving rate is recorded.
(C) Buoyant growth in Govt. revenue.
(D) Indian Economy at market rate of exchange crossed 1 trillion US$ in current fiscal.
(E) Net Foreign direct Investment increased by 350 % .
ANS: (E)
13. Which of the following is / are correct about sub prime crisis which was in news recently?
(1) It has reduced the flow of capital coming of Indian Stock Markets.
(2) The sub prime crisis is the major financial crisis whose origin is in the Russia and Brazil. It has adversely affected the economy of Europe and USA.
(3) The crisis started when some people started trading with false Share certificates of major blue chip US companies in the stock markets.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
ANS: (E)
14. The Prime Minister Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) has a target to connect all habitations of which of the following levels with all weather roads by 2008-09?
(A) 1000+
(B) 2000+
(C) 3000+
(D) 4000+
(E) None of these
ANS: (A)
15. As we all know the value of the Indian rupee has appreciated in the recent past . The value of the Rupee is direct dependent on which of the following?
(A) Availability of commodities in the market.
(B) VAT introduced by the Govt. on various commodities.
(C) Size of total Forex Reserve of India currently.
(D) Capital flow in the market during a given period of time.
(E) None of these
ANS: (A)
16. Which of the following banks has taken over the Centurion Bank of Punjab?
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) IDBI Bank
(C) HDFC Bank
(D) AXIS Bank
(E) None of these
ANS: (C)
17. As per provision made in Bharat Nirman programme the pace of creation of irrigation facilities is required to be raised from present level of 1.42 million hectare per year in such a way so that it can achieve the target level fixed for the same?
(A) 1.50 million hectares / year
(B) 1.75 million hectares / year
(C) 2.00 million hectares / year
(D) 2.25 million hectares / year
(E) 2.50 million hectares / year
ANS: (D)
18. Inflation has become major area of concern in India these days. What measures do the Govt. pf India / RBI normally take to control the same?
(1) Fixation of Maximum Price of the Commodities
(2) System of Dual prices.
(3) Increased in supply of food grains.
(4) Control on credit and liquidity in market.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 2,3 & 4
(E) All 1,2,3 & 4
ANS: (D)
19. How much education cess is being levied on all the taxes to support elementary education for the children of age group of 6-14 years under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?
(A) 0.50%
(B) 0.75%
(C) 1.00%
(D) 1.5O%
(E) 2.00%
ANS: (E)
20. Which of the following is / are correct about various concessions given in the Union Budget for 2008-09?
(1) Five years tax holidays for setting up hospitals in Tier II & Tier III regions for providing health care in rural areas.
(2) Commodities tax transaction to be introduced.
(3) Banking cash transaction tax withdrawn.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 2 & 3
(E) All 1,2 & 3
ANS: (E)
21. Which of the following statements reflects the aim (s) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM)?
(1) Give focused attention to integrated development of infrastructure in selected cities.
(2) Provide basic services to the urban poor
(3) Scale up civic amenities and provision of utilities in urban areas.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
ANS: (D)
22. The Press Freedom Day is observed on which of the following days?
(A) 1st May
(B) 1st June
(C) 3rd May
(D) 3rd June
(E) 10th June
ANS: (C)
23. As per the decision taken by the Govt. of India now the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is extended to all the districts of India. This means it will now be applicable to about-
(A) 200 districts
(B) 300 districts
(C) 400 districts
(D) 500 districts
(E) 600 districts
ANS: (E)
24. As per the reports published by the Ministry of Finance recently the overseas borrowings by the Corporates and currency fluctuation has gone up by which of the following percentage points? About -
(A) 1%
(B) 2%
(C) 3%
(D) 4%
(E) 5%
ANS: (C)
25. The Govt. of India and Reserve Bank of India is planning to set up an autonomous “ATM corporation of India” in which various banks can get together for common ATM operations. If this happens how will we all be benefited by the same?
(1) It will be a cost effective measure as each bank can share its operational cost with others.
(2) Clients can withdrawn money from any ATM from any location. They are not required to go to their banks’ ATM only.
(3) It will indirectly help the IT business also as India has a large pool of IT skilled manpower waiting for suitable placement.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 & 2
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
ANS: (C)
26. As per the news published in various newspapers the Govt. of India has decided to create a Strategic Reserve of –
(A) Oil & Petroleum
(B) Rasoi Gas
(C) Food grains
(D) Cement & Steel
(E) None of these
ANS: (C)
27. The Govt. of India had constituted a high level committee on financial sector reforms with Raghuram G. Rajan as its Chairman. Which of the following is / are the recommendations of the committee?
(1) Liberalize the interest rate that banks/institution can charge to ensure credit for poors.
(2) Create an office of the Ombudsman exclusively for financial sector.
(3) Do not allow foreign investors in domestic stock markets.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
ANS: (E)
28. Yves Leterme has taken over as the prime minister of -
(A) New Zealand
(B) Belgium
(C) Croatia
(D) Portugal
(E) None of these
ANS: (E)
29. The State Bank of India recently opened its 10000th branch in Puduvayal (Tamil Nadu). Only a bank in China has more branches than State Bank of India in the world. What is the name of that Chinese bank?
(A) Shanghai Commercial Bank
(B) Bank of China
(C) China Banking Corporation
(D) Industrial and Commercial Bank of China
(E) None of these
ANS: (D)
30. Many a times we read about ‘Globalization’ and its impact on business practice in India. Which of the following is NOT one of the important parameters of ‘Globalization’?
(1) Reduction of trade barriers to permit free flow of goods and services amongst various nations.
(2) Developing an environment in which free flow of capital can take place.
(3) Promoting local industry to cater to the needs of the consumers in Tier II and Tier III cities. The production from metros should be reserved only for exports.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) Both 2 & 3
ANS: (D)
31. Many times we read a term CBS used in banking operation. What is the full form of the letter ‘C’ in the term ‘CBS’?
(A) Core
(B) Credit
(C) Continuous
(D) Complete
(E) None of these
ANS: (A)
32. As per news published in newspapers the Oil & Natural Gas Commission (ONGC) has purchased some oil assets in Latin American Countries along with one other major company of India . What is the name of that company?
(A) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation
(B) Indian Oil Corporation
(C) Reliance Industries Ltd.
(D) National Mineral Development Corporation of India
(E) None of these
ANS: (E)
33. India’s First centre to monitor climate change was opened recently at -
(A) New Delhi
(B) Chennai
(C) Jaipur
(D) Bangalore
(E) Kolkata
ANS: (B)
34. Which of the following Acts was framed specially to deal more effectively with the problem of Non-Performing Assets in banking system?
(A) SARFAESI ACT.
(B) Banking Regulation Act.
(C) Foreign Exchange Management Act.
(D) Industrial Dispute Act.
(E) None of these
ANS: (A)
35. The —- shows all the websites and pages that you have visited over a period of time.
(A) status bar
(B) task bar
(C) history list
(D) tool bar
(E) None of these
ANS: (C)
36. A proxy server is used for which of the following?
(A) To provide security against unauthorized users
(B) To process client requests for web pages
(C) To process client requests for database access
(D) To provide TCP/IP
(E) None of these
ANS: (A)
37. A repair for a known software bug, usually available at no charge on the internet , is called a (n) —
(A) version
(B) Patch
(C) Tutorial
(D) FAQ
(E) None of these
ANS: (B)
38. In the URL http://ibpsexaminations.blogspot.in/, the portion labeled http is the —
(A) host
(B) domain name
(C) protocol
(D) top-level domain
(E) None of these
ANS: (C)
39. Which of the following organizations has recently given a US$ 600 million loan to Power Grid Corporation of India , a Govt. run organization?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) World Bank
(C) International Monetary Fund
(D) Bank of America
(E) None of these
ANS: (B)
40. The ability to easily add additional users means that a network is –
(A) Scalable
(B) dedicated
(C) Decentralized
(D) Secure
(E) None of these
ANS: (A)
41. In a database , a field is a –
(A) label
(B) table of information
(C) group of related records
(D) category of information
(E) None of these
ANS: (C)
42. The number of pixels displayed on a screen is known as the screen–
(A) resolution
(B) colour depth
(C) refresh rate
(D) viewing size
(E) None of these
ANS: (A)
43. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are example of –
(A) Application software
(B) System software
(C) Operating system software
(D) Platform software
(E) None of these
ANS: (A)
44. If you wish to extend the length of the network without having the signal degrade, you would use a —
(A) repeater
(B) router
(C) gateway
(D) switch
(E) None of these
ANS: (A)
45. A—- is approximately a million bytes.
(A) Gigabyte
(B) Kilobyte
(C) Megabyte
(D) Terabyte
(E) None of these
ANS: (C)
46. The time it takes a device to locate data and instructions and make them available to CPU is known as –
(A) Clock speed
(B) A processing cycle
(C) CPU speed
(D) Access time
(E) None of these
ANS: (D)
47. ——– controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users are interact with the computer.
(A) The platform
(B) The operating system
(C) Application software
(D) The motherboard
(E) None of these
ANS: (B)
48. ——– means that the data contained in a database is accurate and reliable.
(A) Data redundancy
(B) Data integrity
(C) Data reliability
(D) Data consistency
(E) None of these
ANS: (B)
49. A(n) —— is a private corporate network, used exclusively by company employees.
(A) Internet
(B) local area network
(C) peer-to-peer
(D) intranet
(E) None of these
ANS: (B)
50. A characteristic of a file server is which of the following?
(A) Manages file operations and is shared on a network
(B) Manages file operations and is limited to one PC
(C) Acts as fat client and is shared on a network
(D) Acts as fat client and is limited to one PC
(E) None of these
ANS: (A)
Thursday, March 22, 2012
Aryavarta Gramin Bank Clerk Exam, 2011
General English
(Held on 20-11-2011)
Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Once upon a time, there was a stork that lived by catching fish from a particular tank. As the years went by, the stork grew older and weaker and its ability to catch fish diminished. At times it would even starve. The stork knew that it had to do something to survive.
One day it stood by the side of the tank with a very forlorn look on its face. The frogs, fish and crabs wondered why it was not trying to catch any food. A big crab asked the stork what the matter was. The stork answered that it was sad because all the fish in the tank were going to die and so it would have to starve. The stork said that it had heard that people were going to fill the tank with mud and grow crops over it. The fish were very worried and asked the stork to help them.
The stork offered to take all of them to a bigger tank some distance away. But it said that it needed to rest between trips because of old age. It would only be able to carry a few fish at a time.
On its first trip, the stork took a beakful of fish. It flew to a big rock and had a good meal. Thereafter, it rested for a while, and when it was hungry again, the stork took a second trip. In this manner, the stork took a trip each time it was hungry.
The big crab in the tank also wanted to save itself and it requested the stork to take it too. The stork thought it was a good idea to try a new dish. It agreed to take the crab on its next trip.
After the stork flew up with the crab, the crab looked down to see what the new surroundings would be like. All it could see was dry land. When the crab questioned the stork about this, the stork laughed wickedly and pointed to the rock below where the crab saw a heap of fish bones. The crab realized that it was to be the stork’s next meal. So the crab dug its claws into the stork’s neck and would not let go till the stork fell to the ground and died. The crab then cut off the stork’s head and returned home to show it to all the other fish and share the story of its adventure with the stork.
Directions—(Q. 1–3) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
1. REALIZE
(A) Confess
(B) Conclude
(C) Solve
(D) Dream
(E) Confuse
Ans : (B)
2. ADVENTURE
(A) Incident
(B) Decision
(C) Saviour
(D) Scheme
(E) Friendship
Ans : (A)
3. CATCHING
(A) Teasing
(B) Holding
(C) Detecting
(D) Sipping
(E) Eating
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 4–5) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
4. DIMINISHED
(A) Praised
(B) Developed
(C) Agitated
(D) Excited
(E) Lessened
Ans : (B)
5. FORLORN
(A) Serious
(B) Satisfied
(C) Wicked
(D) Helpful
(E) Cheerful
Ans : (E)
6. How did the crab kill the stork ?
(A) The crab dug its claws into the stork’s neck until it fell on the ground.
(B) The crab poisoned the stork’s meal at the rock.
(C) The crab starved the stork to death.
(D) The crab cut the stork’s head.
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
7. Why did the stork agree to take the crab along ?
(A) It wanted to try a new dish
(B) It wanted to prove that it was still young
(C) It wanted to save the crab
(D) It was blackmailed by the crab
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
8. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the story ?
(A) The foolish fish
(B) The brave stork
(C) The crab’s adventure with the stork
(D) The innocent stork and the fish
(E) The lazy crab
Ans : (B)
9. Why did the stork have to remain hungry ?
(A) There were not fish in the tank.
(B) The stork’s capacity to catch fish had diminished.
(C) The stork had lost its teeth due to old age.
(D) The fish had learnt to trick the stork.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
10. As per the stork what had the people being saying about the tank ?
(A) The tank would dry due to immense heat.
(B) The tank would be poisoned by the people.
(C) They would trap the fish and take them to aquariums.
(D) They would fill the tank with mud and cultivate crops.
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 11–20) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B) (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may either be misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.
11. Will you be able (A) to obtain (B) the necessary (C) information immeediately. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)
12. Although (A) I was angry, (B) I controlled (C) myself. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)
13. He came (A) at a time (B) when I was (C) too buzy (D) to see him. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)
14. Have (A) you posted (B) the latter (C) to the lawyer ? (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)
15. Every habbit (A) of the parent (B) was found (C) in the child. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)
16. He is not (A) as intelligent (B) a man as I accpected (C) him to be. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)
17. I did (A) not see (B) the and (C) of the play. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)
18. It is indeed (A) very clever (B) of him to have reefused (C) to do the task. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)
19. Due to unfourseen (A) circumstances, we shall have (B) to leave earlier (C) than planned. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)
20. There (A) were several (B) questions before (C) the committee. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following five sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) in the proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the questions given below :
(1) These books are collectively called Euclid’s elements.
(2) Euclid has included his findings in one of the volumes of Euclid’s elements.
(3) Euclid is known as the father of modern geometry.
(4) This information was systematically presented by him in a set of 13 books.
(5) He complied information on geometry that was already available.
21. Which of the following should be the FOURTHsentence ?
(A) 5
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 3
(E) 4
Ans : (C)
22. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence ?
(A) 3
(B) 1
(C) 5
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (E)
23. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 2
(E) 5
Ans : (C)
24. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence ?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 1
Ans : (C)
25. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence ?
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 3
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (E). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
26. If you does (A) / not work (B) / hard, you (C) / will not succeed. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
27. The candidate (A) / tried to convince (B) / the panel of the (C) / genuinely of his case. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
28. He ran so hardly (A) / that he (B) / was out (C) / of breath. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
29. Mohan was very (A) / concerned about (B) / is health which (C) / was deteriorating day by day. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
30. He dealing (A) / sternly (B) / with the (C) / offender. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
31. The man who (A) / was run on (B) / has been taken (C) / to the hospital. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
32. We started (A) / at a (B) / rapidity of pace (C) / towards the shore. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
33. She is (A) / the tallest (B) / of the (C) / two girls. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
34. He went (A) / to finding (B) / the buried (C) / treasure. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
35. No matter what (A) / they get some (B) / man always (C) / seem dissatisfied. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 36–45) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Dilip Kumar’s train was late and it …(36)… Mumbai a little after midnight. It was his first …(37)… to the city and the did not …(38)… where to go. He thought he would go to a dormitory where he would not have to pay any …(39)… but he did not know how to find one at that hour. He asked a porter to get him a cheap room. The porter asked him for fifty rupees, but Dilip waved him away and walked out of the station. He …(40)… through the streets and asked a number of people, but could not find a room cheap enough. He sat down on a bench in a park to …(41)… of what he should do next. He was very tired and fell …(42)… on the bench. He woke up the next morning, stiff on every limb, but he …(43)… when he …(44)… that it was the …(45)… night lodging that he had ever had.
36. (A) leave
(B) arrived
(C) halted
(D) reached
(E) went
Ans : (D)
37. (A) ambition
(B) visit
(C) parking
(D) rest
(E) check
Ans : (B)
38. (A) want
(B) know
(C) guess
(D) ask
(E) imagine
Ans : (B)
39. (A) rent
(B) interest
(C) lease
(D) allowance
(E) hire
Ans : (A)
40. (A) crept
(B) wandered
(C) across
(D) search
(E) go
Ans : (B)
41. (A) eat
(B) free
(C) think
(D) escape
(E) rest
Ans : (C)
42. (A) sound
(B) asleep
(C) above
(D) upon
(E) right
Ans : (D)
43. (A) amazed
(B) thought
(C) smiled
(D) cried
(E) shocked
Ans : (C)
44. (A) confusion
(B) reassured
(C) regretted
(D) realised
(E) resolved
Ans : (E)
45. (A) cheapest
(B) easy
(C) comfortable
(D) reliable
(E) free
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 46–50) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
46. They ……… very pleased to see us.
(A) foresee
(B) ignore
(C) find
(D) looks
(E) seem
Ans : (E)
47. The seating arrangement makes it difficult for the pupils to talk to ……… other.
(A) every
(B) among
(C) all
(D) for
(E) each
Ans : (E)
48. The university has ……… the government a lot of money.
(A) sanction
(B) cost
(C) asked
(D) labelled
(E) wasted
Ans : (C)
49. We ……… the whole day shopping.
(A) enjoy
(B) left
(C) had
(D) happened
(E) spent
Ans : (C)
50. I was sitting in a cafe, ……… for my friend.
(A) hoping
(B) knowing
(C) seeing
(D) waiting
(E) asking
Ans : (D)
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