GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. As per the decision taken by the Govt. of India now the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is extended to all the districts of India. This means it will now be applicable to about:
1. 200 districts
2. 300 districts
3. 400 districts
4. 500 districts
5. 626 districts

2. Which of the following is the amount of insurance cover provided to the workers of the unorganized sector under Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana ?
1. Rs. 10,000
2. Rs. 20,000
3. Rs. 30,000
4. Rs. 40,000
5. Rs. 50,000

3. Which of the following banks has taken over the Centurion Bank of Punjab ?
1. ICICI Bank
2. IDBI Bank
3. HDFC Bank
4. AXIS Bank
5. None of these


4. Unique Identification Authority of India will set up data base for:
1. Identity and biometrics details of Indian residents
2. Identity and biometrics details of Indian citizens
3. Identity and biometrics details of person’s residents in India or visiting India
4. All the above
5. None of these

5. The biggest Public Sector undertaking in the country is:
1. Iron and steel plants
2. Roadways
3. Railways
4. Airways
5. None of these

6. Which of the following is Horticulture Crop?
1. Paddy
2. Wheat
3. Mango
4. Bajara
5. None of these

7. Which of the following nation is considered the originator of the concept of Micro Finance?
1. India
2. Bangladesh
3. South Africa
4. USA
5. None of these

8. Very often we read in news papers about 3G or 3rd Generation technology. This is a set of standards used for which of the following purposes ?
1. To combat climatic changes
2. Production of Nuclear Energy
3. Film Production
4. Mobile Telecommunications
5. All of these

9. What is the full form of ‘ULIP’, the term which was in the news recently ?
1. Universal Life and Investment Plan
2. Unit Loan and Insurance Plan
3. Universal Loan and Investment Plan
4. Uniformly Loaded Investment Plan
5. Unit Linked Insurance Plan

10. The main function of I. M. F. is to:
1. Finance investment loans to developing countries
2. Act as a private sector lending arm of the World Bank
3. Help to solve balance of payment problems of member countries
4. Arrange international deposits from banks
5. None of these

11. The difference between visible exports and visible imports is defined as:
1. Balance of trade
2. Balance of payment
3. Balanced terms of trade
4. Gains from trade
5. All the above

12. Invisible Export means export:
1. Services
2. Prohibited goods
3. Unrecorded goods
4. Goods through smuggling
5. All the above

13. ‘Indira Gandhi Canal’ which is around 450 km long provide irrigation facility mainly to which of the following states ?
1. Punjab
2. Haryana
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Gujarat
5. Rajasthan

14. The rate of MAT has been increased from the present 15% to 18% with effect from April 2010. What is the full form of MAT?
1. Maximum Alternate Tax
2. Minimum Alternate Tax
3. Minimum Affordable Tax
4. Maximum Affordable Tax
5. None of these

15. RBI has asked banks to make a plan to provide banking services to all villages having a population upto 2000. This directive issued by the RBI will fall in which of the following categories ?
1. Plan for Financial Inclusion
2. Efforts to meet the targets of Priority Sector Lending
3. Extension of Relief Packages to the Farmers
4. Plan for opening more rural branches
5. None of these

16. Which of the following is not a part of the scheduled banking structure in India ?
1. Money Lenders
2. Public Sector Banks
3. Private Sector Banks
4. Regional Rural Banks
5. State Cooperative Banks

17. The rate of interest on Savings Bank Account is stipulated by–
1. The concerned bank
2. RBI
3. Indian Banks Association
4. Government of India
5. Banking Codes and Standards Board of India

18. Many times we read a term CBS used in banking operation. What is the full form of the letter ‘C’ in the term ‘CBS’ ?
1. Core
2. Credit
3. Continuous
4. Complete
5. None of these

19. In the year 2010, Commonwealth Games were organized in which of the following countries?
1. China
2. South Africa
3. Canada
4. Brazil
5. India

20. Which of the following metals is used for generation of nuclear Energy by most of the Nuclear Power Plants
1. Zinc
2. Platinum
3. Uranium
4. Nickel
5. None of these

21. Many a time we read a term ‘PPP’ in financial dailies/ magazines. What is the full form of the same as used in financial world ?
1. Public Per Capita Power
2. Per Capita Potential Purchases
3. Purchasing Power Parity
4. Present Purchasing Power
5. None of these

22. The recent press report indicates that one of the Economies of the world took over another Economy in GDP terms to gain nubmer Two, ranking at world level. Which one of the following country is that ?
1. Japan
2. China
3. Germany
4. Australia
5. India

23. Which of the following villagers received first lot of UID numbers ?
1. Vaijapur in Maharashtra
2. Bedkihal in Karnataka
3. Tembhli in Maharashtra
4. Navagam in Gujarat
5. None of these

24. The highest weight in the revised Wholesale Price Index, implemented from September 2010 is given to which of the following item ?
1. Fuel
2. Food items
3. Manufactured items
4. Primary Articles
5. All of these

25. Which one of the following is a driving force influencing the industrial growth of an economy?
1. Economic Factors only
2. Investment only
3. Innovation/Market Base only
4. Only 1 and 2
5. All 1, 2 and 3

26. What do you understand by Community Development programmes ?
1. Villages participation in the programme
2. A movement to promote better living for the whole community
3. A movement to promote better living for the whole community with the assistance of local Government
4. A movement designed to promote better living for the whole community with the active participation and on the initiative of the community
5. None of these

27. In which one of the following activities percentage share of cooperative sector is the highest ?
1. Agricultural Credit disbursement
2. Sugar production
3. Wheat procurement
4. Fertilizer distribution
5. Handlooms

28. What is a Panchayati Raj ?
1. It is a community development programme
2. It is a cooperative movement
3. It is a scheme of self governance
4. It is an exercise in decentralisation of administrative authority
5. It is an out dated system, not followed now

29. Which one of the following is the updated base 7for Wholesale Price Index (WPI) ?
1. 2002-2003
2. 2003-2004
3. 2004-2005
4. 2005-2006
5. 2006-2007

30. What is a Green Index ?
1. It measures nation’s wealth according to GNP per capita
2. It measures nation’s wealth according to GDP per captia
3. It measures nation’s wealth according to provisions of control on Green house gases
4. It measures nation’s wealth in terms of coverage of forest area
5. None of these

31. In which one of the following city, 2012 Olympics are proposed to be held ?
1. Frankfurt
2. London
3. Tokyo
4. Washington
5. Dubai

32. In which one of the following states, Rosa Power Plant is located ?
1. U.P.
2. M.P.
3. Orissa
4. Haryana
5. Punjab

33. Which one of the following is present Saving Bank Interest Rate (in percentage terms) ?
1. 3.0
2. 3.5
3. 4.0
4. 4.5
5. 5.0

34. For calculation of poverty line in rural area, which one of the following calories consumption per day per person has been stipulated by Planning Commission?
1. 2000
2. 2100
3. 2400
4. 2500
5. None of these

35. Who is Julian Assange ?
1. Founder, Google
2. Founder, Rediffmail
3. Nominee, Nobel Prize for Literature 2010
4. Founder, WikiLeaks
5. None of these

36. For which one of the following States, interloculators’ panel has been appointed by the Centre ?
1. Manipur
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Assanm
4. Nagaland (F) J&K
5. None of these

37. Expand the term BCBS.
1. Bank’s Committee on Banking Supervision
2. Basel Committee on Banking Supervision
3. Bank’s Commission on Banking Supervision
4. Basel Commission on Banking Supervision
5. None of these

38. By which one of the following years, Government proposes to introduce IFRS norms?
1. April 2011
2. October 2011
3. April 2012
4. October 2012
5. None of these

39. As per World Development Report 2009, if the poverty is measured by the international poverty line standard of below a dollar a day, approximately what per cent of people will be living in India below poverty line ?
1. 25.0
2. 27.5
3. 34.5
4. 58.5
5. 10.5

40. Who is Kaushik Basu ?
1. Dy. Governor, RBI
2. Member Planning Commission
3. Chairman, Prime Ministers’ Economic Advisory Council
4. Chief Economic Advisor
5. Secretary-General FICCI

41. In a Poverty Pyramid index, which one of the following segments of population face highest poverty risk ?
1. Formal wage employment
2. Informal Self Employment : Employers
3. Regular Informal Wage employment
4. Informal Self Employment own account
5. Casual Informal Wage Employment and domestic work

42. Which one of the following is a Self Employment Programme for Educated Unemployed Youth ?
1. Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana
2. Swaran Jayanti Sahakari Rozgar Yojana
3. National Social Assistance Programme
4. Swaran Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
5. None of these

43. In which one of the following States, Sariska Tiger Reserve is located ?
1. M. P.
2. Gujarat
3. Rajasthan
4. West Bengal
5. Orissa

44. Who is Mohammed Yunus ?
1. Finance Minister, Bangladesh
2. Founder, Grameen Bank
3. Nobel Laureate for peace
4. Foreign Minister, Pakistan
5. Founder Micro Finance Institutions in India

45. Which one of the following is the primary source of energy in India ?
1. Hydel Power
2. Natural Gas
3. Coal
4. Naptha
5. Non-conventional energy

46. At which one of the following rate, the Central Bank lends to banks against government securities ?
1. Repo Rate
2. Reverse Repo Rate
3. Bank Rate
4. SLR
5. CRR

47. Which one of the following is not a member of BASIC ?
1. India
2. China
3. South Africa
4. Brazil
5. Indonesia

48. Which one of the following Corporate Groups has argued in Supreme Court that leaks of Radia Tapes has affected its reputation ?
1. RIL
2. Jindal Steels
3. Bajaj Group
4. Adani Group
5. Tata Group

49. Yuan currency belongs to which one of the following countries ?
1. Japan
2. Thailand
3. South Korea
4. China
5. Vietnam

50. Aung San Sau Kyi, Nobel Peace Prize Winner belongs to which one of the following countries?
1. China
2. North Korea
3. South Korea
4. Japan
5. Myanmar

ANSWERS:

1. (5) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (2) 8. (4) 9. (5) 10. (3)
11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (5) 14. (2) 15. (4) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (5) 20. (3)
21. (3) 22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (5) 25. (5) 26. (1) 27. (5) 28. (4) 29. (3) 30. (4)
31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (4) 36. (5) 37. (2) 38. (1) 39. (2) 40. (4)
41. (1) 42. (1) 43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (3) 46. (5) 47.(5) 48.(5) 49.(4) 50. (5)

IBPS REASONING SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Verbal

1. If Step IV reads ‘to restrict the use of air conditioners”, which of the following will definitely be the input?
(1)use to of the air conditioners restrict
(2)restrict the to of air conditioners use
(3)the air conditioners of restrict use to
(4) Can’t be determined
(5) None of these
Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A famous museum issues entry passes to all its visitors for security reasons. Visitors are allowed in batches after every one hour. In a day there are six batches. A code is printed on entry pass which keeps on changing for every batch. Following is an illustration of pass-codes issued for each batch.
Batch I: clothes neat and clean liked are all by
Batch II: by clothes neat all are and clean liked
Batch III: liked by clothes clean and neat all are and so on…
2. If pass-code for the third batch is ‘night succeed day and hard work-to for’, what will be the pass-code for the sixth batch?
(1)work hard to for succeed night and day
(2)hard work for and succeed night to day
(3)work hard for to succeed night and day
(4)hard work for to succeed night and day
(5) None of these
3. If ‘visit in zoo should the time day’ is the pass-code for the fifth batch, zoo we the should visit day time in’ will be the pass-code for which of following batches?
(1) II
(2) IV
(3) I
(4) III
(5) VI

4. Sanjay visited the museum in the fourth batch and was issued a pass-code ‘to fast rush avoid not do very run’. What would have been the pass-code for him had he visited the museum in the second bitch?
(1)rush do not avoid to run very fast
(2)rush not do-avoid to run very
(3)avoid rush not do to run very fast
(4) Date inadequate
(5) None of these

5. Subodh went to visit the museum in the second batch. He was issued a pass-code ‘length the day equal of an night are’. However, he could not visit the museum in the second batch as he was a little late. He then preferred to visit in the fifth batch. What will be the new pass-code issued to him?
(1)and of are night the length equal day
(2)and are of night the length equal day
(3)and of are night the equal day length
(4 )an d of are th e night len gth day equal
(5) None of these

6. If ass-code for the second batch is ‘to confidence hard you leads work and success’, what will be the pass-code for the fourth batch?
(1)leads success to you hard confidence and work
(2)leads success you to hard confidence and work
(3)leads success to you hard confidence work and
(4)leads to success you hard confidence and work
(5) None of these7. If the pass-code issued for the last (sixth) batch is ‘and pencil by all boys used are pen’, what will be the passcode for the first batch?
(1)pencil and pen are used by all boys
(2)pen and pencil used are by all boys
(3)pen and pencil are used by all boys
(4)Pencil and pen are used all by boys
(5) None of these
8. If the pass-code for the sixth batch is ‘not go the way to of out do’, what will be the pass-code for the third batch?
(1)Of do to out go not way the
(2)of to do out not go way the
(3)of to go out do not way the
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of theseDirections: Study the following information to answer the given questions:
A word rearrangement machine when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and the steps of rearrangement:
Input: Over you pat me crow easy to.
Steps: (I) pat over you crow easy to me
Steps: (II) crow pat over you to me easy
Steps: (III) over crow pal to me easy you
Steps: (IV) to over crow pat easy you me and so on.
As per the rule followed in the above steps, find out the appropriate step for the given input in the following questions:
9. If Step II of an input is ‘ge su but he for game free’, what would be step VI?
(1)a for but fine he game su
(2)for free ge game su he but
(3)free ge for but game su he
(4)he ge su but game free for
(5) None of these
10. If step IV of an input is ‘blue navy kit lime se get‘, which of the following would definitely be the input?
(1)navy get lime out kit se blue
(2)lime navy get kit se blue out
(3)lime blue navy kit get out se
(4)kit blue navy se get out lime
(5) None of these
11. Input: but calm free are so not eat. Which of the following will be the 3rd step for this input?
(1)so free but calm eat are not
(2)but calm are free not so eat
(3)are but calm free not eat so
(4)but so free eat are not calm
(5) None of these
12. If step V of an input is ‘put down col in as mach sa’ , what would be the 8th step?
(1)down in put much sa as col
(2)in put down cot much sa as
(3)much in put down sa as col
(4)col put down as much sa in
(5) None of these13. Input: rim bye eat klin fe to low Which of the following steps would be ‘fe low rim to bye klin eat’?
(1) VIth
(2) vth
(3) IVth
(4) IIIrd
(5) None of these
Directions: A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement:
Input: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
Step I: Put for he watch hand pocket them.
Step II: Put he for watch pocket hand them.
Step III: Put hand pocket watch for he them.
Step IV: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
And so on goes the machine. Study the logic and answer the questions that follow:
14. If Step III of a given input be ‘fly sky birds my su fur say’, what is the seventh step of the input?
(1)fly sky birds my su fur say
(2)fly birds sky my fur su say
(3)fly fur su my birds sky say
(4)fly su fur my sky birds say
(5) None of these
15. If Step VII of an input is ‘slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi’, what is step V of that input?
(1)slow dig hak pat dhurwa ran vi
(2)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(3)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(4)slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi
(5) None of these

Answers

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (5) 9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (5) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (2)

Non Verbal

Answers

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (2)

IBPS Numerical Ability Sample Questions

1. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them?
1. 25
2. 26
3. 27
4. 30 5. 26
Answer: (3)

2. The numerator of a non-zero rational number is five less than the denominator. If the denominator is increased by eight and the numerator is doubled, then again we get the same rational number. The required rational number is:
1. 1/8
2. 4/9
3. 2/8
4. 3/8
5. 3/8
Answer: (5)

3. Find the greatest number that will divide 640, 710 and 1526 so as to leave 11, 7, 9 as remainders respectively.
1. 36
2. 37
3. 42
4. 29
5. 47
Answer: (2)
4. Jayesh is as much younger than Anil as he is older than Prashant. If the sum of the ages of Anil and Prashant is 48 years, what is Jayesh’s age in years?
1. 29
2. 30
3. 24
4. 25
5. 28
Answer: (3)
5. A bag contains one rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 5. Their total value is Rs. 114. The value of 50 paise coins is:
1. Rs. 28
2. Rs. 36
3. Rs. 49
4. Rs. 72
5. Rs. 50
Answer: (1)
6. A tempo is insured to the extent of 4 5 of its original value. If the premium on it at the rate of 1.3 percent amounts to Rs. 910, the original value of the tempo is:
1. Rs. 78,000
2. Rs. 78,500
3. Rs. 80,000
4. Rs. 85,000
5. Rs. 87,500
Answer: (5)
7. By selling 45 lemons for Rs. 40, a man loses 20%. How many should he sell for Rs. 24 to gain 20% in the transaction?
1. 19
2. 18
3. 24
4. 22
5. 23
Answer: (2)
8. In a ratio, which is equal to 3 : 4, if the antecedent is 12, then the consequent is:
1. 10
2. 16
3. 20
4. 22
5. 18
Answer: (2)9. A, B and C are employed to do a piece of work for Rs. 529. A and B together are supposed to do 19/23 of the work and B and C together 8/23 of the work. What amount should A be paid?
1. Rs. 320
2. Rs. 345
3. Rs. 355
4. Rs. 380
5. None of these
Answer: (2)
10. A boy rides his bicycle 10 km at an average speed of 12 km/hr and again travels 12 km at an average speed of 10 km/hr. His average speed for the entire trip is approximately :
1. 10.4 km/hr
2. 10.8 km/hr
3. 12 km/hr
4. 14 km/hr
5. 13 km/hr
Answer: (2)
11. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together at random. What is the probability of both the cards being kings?
1. 1/19
2. 27/29
3. 35/256
4. 1/121
5. 35/121
Answer: (4)

12. An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple interest, but he includes the interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest becomes:
1. 13%
2. 10.25%
3. 15%
4. 11%
5. None of these
Answer: (2)

13. A towel, when bleached, was found to have lost 20% of its length and 10% of its breadth. The percentage of decrease in area is:
1. 11%
2. 12%
3. 20%
4. 28%
5. 33%
Answer: (4)
14. What is the difference in exports between the periods March to May and June to August (in $ million)?
1. 418
2. 592
3. 5790
4. 585
5. None of these
Answer: (4)
15. If the exports of company B in the year 2003 were Rs. 77 crore, then, what were the imports of the company in that year?
1. 86 crore
2. 107.5 crore
3. 103.95 crore
4. 101 crore
5. None of these
Answer: (3)

BAKING TERMINOLOGY

•  
• Accrued interest: Interest due from issue date or from the last coupon payment date to the settlement date. Accrued interest on bonds must be added to their purchase price.
• Arbitrage: Buying a financial instrument in one market in order to sell the same instrument at a higher price in another market.
• Ask Price: The lowest price at which a dealer is willing to sell a given security.
• Asset-Backed Securities (ABS): A type of security that is backed by a pool of bank loans, leases, and other assets. Most ABS are backed by auto loans and credit cards – these issues are very similar to mortgage-backed securities.
• At-the-money: The exercise price of a derivative that is closest to the market price of the underlying instrument.
• Basis Point: One hundredth of 1%. A measure normally used in the statement of interest rate e.g., a change from 5.75% to 5.81% is a change of 6 basis points.
• Bear Markets: Unfavorable markets associated with falling prices and investor pessimism.
• Bid-ask Spread: The difference between a dealer’s bid and ask price.
• Bid Price: The highest price offered by a dealer to purchase a given security.
• Blue Chips: Blue chips are unsurpassed in quality and have a long and stable record of earnings and dividends. They are issued by large and well-established firms that have impeccable financial credentials.
• Bond: Publicly traded long-term debt securities, issued by corporations and governments, whereby the issuer agrees to pay a fixed amount of interest over a specified period of time and to repay a fixed amount of principal at maturity.
• Book Value: The amount of stockholders’ equity in a firm equals the amount of the firm’s assets minus the firm’s liabilities and preferred stock. /p>
• Broker: Individuals licensed by stock exchanges to enable investors to buy and sell securities.
• Brokerage Fee: The commission charged by a broker.
• Bull Markets: Favorable markets associated with rising prices and investor optimism.
• Call Option: The right to buy the underlying securities at a specified exercise price on or before a specified expiration date.
• Callable Bonds: Bonds that give the issuer the right to redeem the bonds before their stated maturity.
• Capital Gain: The amount by which the proceeds from the sale of a capital asset exceed its original purchase price.
• Capital Markets: The market in which long-term securities such as stocks and bonds are bought and sold.
• Certificate of Deposits (CDs): Savings instrument in which funds must remain on deposit for a specified period, and premature withdrawals incur interest penalties.
• Closed-end (Mutual) Fund: A fund with a fixed number of shares issued, and all trading is done between investors in the open market. The share prices are determined by market prices instead of their net asset value.
• Collateral: A specific asset pledged against possible default on a bond. Mortgage bonds are backed by claims on property. Collateral trusts bonds are backed by claims on other securities. Equipment obligation bonds are backed by claims on equipment.
• Commercial Paper: Short-term and unsecured promissory notes issued by corporations with very high credit standings.
• Common Stock: Equity investment representing ownership in a corporation; each share represents a fractional ownership interest in the firm.
• Compound Interest: Interest paid not only on the initial deposit but also on any interest accumulated from one period to the next.
• Contract Note: A note which must accompany every security transaction which contains information such as the dealer’s name (whether he is acting as principal or agent) and the date of contract.
• Controlling Shareholder: Any person who is, or group of persons who together are, entitled to exercise or control the exercise of a certain amount of shares in a company at a level (which differs by jurisdiction) that triggers a mandatory general offer, or more of the voting power at general meetings of the issuer, or who is or are in a position to control the composition of a majority of the board of directors of the issuer.
• Convertible Bond: A bond with an option, allowing the bondholder to exchange the bond for a specified number of shares of common stock in the firm. A conversion price is the specified value of the shares for which the bond may be exchanged. The conversion premium is the excess of the bond’s value over the conversion price.
• Corporate Bond: Long-term debt issued by private corporations.
• Coupon: The feature on a bond that defines the amount of annual interest income.
• Coupon Frequency: The number of coupon payments per year.
• Coupon Rate: The annual rate of interest on the bond’s face value that a bond’s issuer promises to pay the bondholder. It is the bond’s interest payment per dollar of par value.
• Covered Warrants: Derivative call warrants on shares which have been separately deposited by the issuer so that they are available for delivery upon exercise.
• Credit Rating: An assessment of the likelihood of an individual or business being able to meet its financial obligations. Credit ratings are provided by credit agencies or rating agencies to verify the financial strength of the issuer for investors.
• Currency Board: A monetary system in which the monetary base is fully backed by foreign reserves. Any changes in the size of the monetary base has to be fully matched by corresponding changes in the foreign reserves.
• Current Yield: A return measure that indicates the amount of current income a bond provides relative to its market price. It is shown as: Coupon Rate divided by Price multiplied by 100%.
• Custody of Securities: Registration of securities in the name of the person to whom a bank is accountable, or in the name of the bank’s nominee; plus deposition of securities in a designated account with the bank’s bankers or with any other institution providing custodial services.
• Default Risk: The possibility that a bond issuer will default ie, fail to repay principal and interest in a timely manner.
• Derivative Call (Put) Warrants: Warrants issued by a third party which grant the holder the right to buy (sell) the shares of a listed company at a specified price.
• Derivative Instrument: Financial instrument whose value depends on the value of another asset.
• Discount Bond: A bond selling below par, as interest in-lieu to the bondholders.
• Diversification: The inclusion of a number of different investment vehicles in a portfolio in order to increase returns or be exposed to less risk.
• Duration: A measure of bond price volatility, it captures both price and reinvestment risks to indicate how a bond will react to different interest rate environments.
• Earnings: The total profits of a company after taxation and interest.
• Earnings per Share (EPS): The amount of annual earnings available to common stockholders as stated on a per share basis.
• Earnings Yield: The ratio of earnings to price (E/P). The reciprocal is price earnings ratio (P/E).
• Equity: Ownership of the company in the form of shares of common stock.
• Equity Call Warrants: Warrants issued by a company which give the holder the right to acquire new shares in that company at a specified price and for a specified period of time.
• Ex-dividend (XD): A security which no longer carries the right to the most recently declared dividend or the period of time between the announcement of the dividend and the payment (usually two days before the record date). For transactions during the ex-dividend period, the seller will receive the dividend, not the buyer. Ex-dividend status is usually indicated in newspapers with an (x) next to the stock’s or unit trust’s name.
• Face Value/ Nominal Value: The value of a financial instrument as stated on the instrument. Interest is calculated on face/nominal value.
• Fixed-income Securities: Investment vehicles that offer a fixed periodic return.
• Fixed Rate Bonds: Bonds bearing fixed interest payments until maturity date.
• Floating Rate Bonds: Bonds bearing interest payments that are tied to current interest rates.
• Fundamental Analysis: Research to predict stock value that focuses on such determinants as earnings and dividends prospects, expectations for future interest rates and risk evaluation of the firm.
• Future Value: The amount to which a current deposit will grow over a period of time when it is placed in an account paying compound interest.
• Future Value of an Annuity: The amount to which a stream of equal cash flows that occur in equal intervals will grow over a period of time when it is placed in an account paying compound interest.
• Futures Contract: A commitment to deliver a certain amount of some specified item at some specified date in the future.
• Hedge: A combination of two or more securities into a single investment position for the purpose of reducing or eliminating risk.
• Income: The amount of money an individual receives in a particular time period.
• Index Fund: A mutual fund that holds shares in proportion to their representation in a market index, such as the S&P 500.
• Initial Public Offering (IPO): An event where a company sells its shares to the public for the first time. The company can be referred to as an IPO for a period of time after the event.
• Inside Information: Non-public knowledge about a company possessed by its officers, major owners, or other individuals with privileged access to information.
• Insider Trading: The illegal use of non-public information about a company to make profitable securities transactions
• Intrinsic Value: The difference of the exercise price over the market price of the underlying asset.
• Investment: A vehicle for funds expected to increase its value and/or generate positive returns.
• Investment Adviser: A person who carries on a business which provides investment advice with respect to securities and is registered with the relevant regulator as an investment adviser.
• IPO price: The price of share set before being traded on the stock exchange. Once the company has gone Initial Public Offering, the stock price is determined by supply and demand.
• Junk Bond: High-risk securities that have received low ratings (i.e. Standard & Poor’s BBB rating or below; or Moody’s BBB rating or below) and as such, produce high yields, so long as they do not go into default.
• Leverage Ratio: Financial ratios that measure the amount of debt being used to support operations and the ability of the firm to service its debt.
• Libor: The London Interbank Offered Rate (or LIBOR) is a daily reference rate based on the interest rates at which banks offer to lend unsecured funds to other banks in the London wholesale money market (or interbank market). The LIBOR rate is published daily by the British Banker’s Association and will be slightly higher than the London Interbank Bid Rate (LIBID), the rate at which banks are prepared to accept deposits.
• Limit Order: An order to buy (sell) securities which specifies the highest (lowest) price at which the order is to be transacted.
• Limited Company: The passive investors in a partnership, who supply most of the capital and have liability limited to the amount of their capital contributions.
• Liquidity: The ability to convert an investment into cash quickly and with little or no loss in value.
• Listing: Quotation of the Initial Public Offering company’s shares on the stock exchange for public trading.
• Listing Date: The date on which Initial Public Offering stocks are first traded on the stock exchange by the public
• Margin Call: A notice to a client that it must provide money to satisfy a minimum margin requirement set by an Exchange or by a bank / broking firm.
• Market Capitalization: The product of the number of the company’s outstanding ordinary shares and the market price of each share.
• Market Maker: A dealer who maintains an inventory in one or more stocks and undertakes to make continuous two-sided quotes.
• Market Order: An order to buy or an order to sell securities which is to be executed at the prevailing market price.
• Money Market: Market in which short-term securities are bought and sold.
• Mutual Fund: A company that invests in and professionally manages a diversified portfolio of securities and sells shares of the portfolio to investors.
• Net Asset Value: The underlying value of a share of stock in a particular mutual fund; also used with preferred stock.
• Offer for Sale: An offer to the public by, or on behalf of, the holders of securities already in issue.
• Offer for Subscription: The offer of new securities to the public by the issuer or by someone on behalf of the issuer.
• Open-end (Mutual) Fund: There is no limit to the number of shares the fund can issue. The fund issues new shares of stock and fills the purchase order with those new shares. Investors buy their shares from, and sell them back to, the mutual fund itself. The share prices are determined by their net asset value.
• Open Offer: An offer to current holders of securities to subscribe for securities whether or not in proportion to their existing holdings.
• Option: A security that gives the holder the right to buy or sell a certain amount of an underlying financial asset at a specified price for a specified period of time.
• Oversubscribed: When an Initial Public Offering has more applications than actual shares available. Investors will often apply for more shares than required in anticipation of only receiving a fraction of the requested number. Investors and underwriters will often look to see if an IPO is oversubscribed as an indication of the public’s perception of the business potential of the IPO company.
• Par Bond: A bond selling at par (i.e. at its face value).
• Par Value: The face value of a security.
• Perpetual Bonds: Bonds which have no maturity date.
• Placing: Obtaining subscriptions for, or the sale of, primary market, where the new securities of issuing companies are initially sold.
• Portfolio: A collection of investment vehicles assembled to meet one or more investment goals.
• Preference Shares: A corporate security that pays a fixed dividend each period. It is senior to ordinary shares but junior to bonds in its claims on corporate income and assets in case of bankruptcy.
• Premium (Warrants): The difference of the market price of a warrant over its intrinsic value.
• Premium Bond: Bond selling above par.
• Present Value: The amount to which a future deposit will discount back to present when it is depreciated in an account paying compound interest.
• Present Value of an Annuity: The amount to which a stream of equal cash flows that occur in equal intervals will discount back to present when it is depreciated in an account paying compound interest.
• Price/Earnings Ratio (P/E): The measure to determine how the market is pricing the company’s common stock. The price/earnings (P/E) ratio relates the company’s earnings per share (EPS) to the market price of its stock.
• Privatization: The sale of government-owned equity in nationalized industry or other commercial enterprises to private investors.
• Prospectus: A detailed report published by the Initial Public Offering company, which includes all terms and conditions, application procedures, IPO prices etc, for the IPO
• Put Option: The right to sell the underlying securities at a specified exercise price on of before a specified expiration date.
• Rate of Return: A percentage showing the amount of investment gain or loss against the initial investment.
• Real Interest Rate: The net interest rate over the inflation rate. The growth rate of purchasing power derived from an investment.
• Redemption Value: The value of a bond when redeemed.
• Reinvestment Value: The rate at which an investor assumes interest payments made on a bond which can be reinvested over the life of that security.
• Relative Strength Index (RSI): A stock’s price that changes over a period of time relative to that of a market index such as the Standard & Poor’s 500, usually measured on a scale from 1 to 100, 1 being the worst and 100 being the best.
• Repurchase Agreement: An arrangement in which a security is sold and later bought back at an agreed price and time.
• Resistance Level: A price at which sellers consistently outnumber buyers, preventing further price rises.
• Return: Amount of investment gain or loss.
• Rights Issue: An offer by way of rights to current holders of securities that allows them to subscribe for securities in proportion to their existing holdings.
• Risk-Averse, Risk-Neutral, Risk-Taking:
  Risk-averse describes an investor who requires greater return in exchange for greater risk.
  Risk-neutral describes an investor who does not require greater return in exchange for greater risk.
  Risk-taking describes an investor who will accept a lower return in exchange for greater risk.
• Senior Bond: A bond that has priority over other bonds in claiming assets and dividends.
• Short Hedge: A transaction that protects the value of an asset held by taking a short position in a futures contract.
• Settlement: Conclusion of a securities transaction when a customer pays a broker/dealer for securities purchased or delivered, securities sold, and receives from the broker the proceeds of a sale.
• Short Position: Investors sell securities in the hope that they will decrease in value and can be bought at a later date for profit.
• Short Selling: The sale of borrowed securities, their eventual repurchase by the short seller at a lower price and their return to the lender.
• Speculation: The process of buying investment vehicles in which the future value and level of expected earnings are highly uncertain.
• Stock Splits: Wholesale changes in the number of shares. For example, a two for one split doubles the number of shares but does not change the share capital.
• Subordinated Bond: An issue that ranks after secured debt, debenture, and other bonds, and after some general creditors in its claim on assets and earnings. Owners of this kind of bond stand last in line among creditors, but before equity holders, when an issuer fails financially.
• Substantial Shareholder: A person acquires an interest in relevant share capital equal to, or exceeding, 10% of the share capital.
• Support Level: A price at which buyers consistently outnumber sellers, preventing further price falls.
• Technical Analysis: A method of evaluating securities by relying on the assumption that market data, such as charts of price, volume, and open interest, can help predict future (usually short-term) market trends. Contrasted with fundamental analysis which involves the study of financial accounts and other information about the company. (It is an attempt to predict movements in security prices from their trading volume history.)
• Time Horizon: The duration of time an investment is intended for.
• Trading Rules: Stipulation of parameters for opening and intra-day quotations, permissible spreads according to the prices of securities available for trading and board lot sizes for each security.
• Trust Deed: A formal document that creates a trust. It states the purpose and terms of the name of the trustees and beneficiaries.
• Underlying Security: The security subject to being purchased or sold upon exercise of the option contract.
• Valuation: Process by which an investor determines the worth of a security using risk and return concept.
• Warrant: An option for a longer period of time giving the buyer the right to buy a number of shares of common stock in company at a specified price for a specified period of time.
• Window Dressing: Financial adjustments made solely for the purpose of accounting presentation, normally at the time of auditing of company accounts.
• Yield (Internal rate of Return): The compound annual rate of return earned by an investment
• Yield to Maturity: The rate of return yield by a bond held to maturity when both compound interest payments and the investor’s capital gain or loss on the security are taken into account.
• Zero Coupon Bond: A bond with no coupon that is sold at a deep discount from par value.

COMPUTER TERMINOLOGY

access time - The performance of a hard drive or other storage device - how long it takes to locate a file.
active program or window - The application or window at the front (foreground) on the monitor.
alert (alert box) - a message that appears on screen, usually to tell you something went wrong.
alias - an icon that points to a file, folder or application (System 7).
apple menu - on the left side of the screen header. System 6 = desk accessories System 7 = up to 50 items.
application - a program in which you do your work.
application menu - on the right side of the screen header. Lists running applications.
ASCII (pronounced ask-key ) - American Standard Code for Information Interchange. a commonly used data format for exchanging information between computers or programs.
background - part of the multitasking capability. A program can run and perform tasks in the background while another program is being used in the foreground.
bit - the smallest piece of information used by the computer. Derived from "binary digit". In computer language, either a one (1) or a zero (0).
backup - a copy of a file or disk you make for archiving purposes.
boot - to start up a computer.
bug - a programming error that causes a program to behave in an unexpected way.
bus - an electronic pathway through which data is transmitted between components in a computer.
byte - a piece of computer information made up of eight bits.
card - a printed circuit board that adds some feature to a computer.
cartridge drive - a storage device, like a hard drive, in which the medium is a cartridge that can be removed.
CD-ROM - an acronym for Compact Disc Read-Only Memory.
Chooser - A desk accessory used to select a printer, or other external device, or to log onto a network.
Clipboard - A portion of memory where the Mac temporarily stores information. Called a Copy Buffer in many PC applications because it is used to hold information which is to be moved, as in word processing where text is "cut" and then "pasted".
Clock Rate (MHz) - The instruction processing speed of a computer measured in millions of cycles per second (i.e., 200 MHz).
command - the act of giving an instruction to your Mac either by menu choice or keystroke.
command (apple) key - a modifier key, the Command key used in conjunction with another keystroke to active some function on the Mac.
compiler - a program the converts programming code into a form that can be used by a computer.
compression - a technique that reduces the size of a saved file by elimination or encoding redundancies (i.e., JPEG, MPEG, LZW, etc.)
control key - seldom used modifier key on the Mac.
control panel - a program that allows you to change settings in a program or change the way a Mac looks and/or behaves.
CPU - the Central Processing Unit. The processing chip that is the "brains" of a computer.
crash - a system malfunction in which the computer stops working and has to be restarted.
cursor - The pointer, usually arrow or cross shaped, which is controlled by the mouse.
daisy chaining - the act of stringing devices together in a series (such as SCSI).
database - an electronic list of information that can be sorted and/or searched.
data - (the plural of datum) information processed by a computer.
defragment - (also - optimize) to concatenate fragments of data into contiguous blocks in memory or on a hard drive.
desktop - 1. the finder. 2. the shaded or colored backdrop of the screen.
desktop file - an invisible file in which the Finder stores a database of information about files and icons.
dialog box - an on-screen message box that appears when the Mac requires additional information before completing a command.
digitize - to convert linear, or analog, data into digital data which can be used by the computer.
disk - a spinning platter made of magnetic or optically etched material on which data can be stored.
disk drive - the machinery that writes the data from a disk and/or writes data to a disk.
disk window - the window that displays the contents or directory of a disk.
document - a file you create, as opposed to the application which created it.
DOS - acronym for Disk Operating System - used in IBM PCs.
DPI - acronym for Dots Per Inch - a gauge of visual clarity on the printed page or on the computer screen.
download - to transfer data from one computer to another. (If you are on the receiving end, you are downloading. If you are on the sending end, you are uploading ).
drag - to move the mouse while its button is being depressed.
drag and drop - a feature on the Mac which allows one to drag the icon for a document on top of the icon for an application, thereby launching the application and opening the document.
driver - a file on a computer which tells it how to communicate with an add-on piece of equipment (like a printer).
Ethernet - a protocol for fast communication and file transfer across a network.
expansion slot - a connector inside the computer which allows one to plug in a printed circuit board that provides new or enhanced features.
extension - a startup program that runs when you start the Mac and then enhances its function.
fibre channel - as applied to data storage and network topology
file - the generic word for an application, document, control panel or other computer data.
finder - The cornerstone or home-base application in the Mac environment. The finder regulates the file management functions of the Mac (copying, renaming, deleting...)
floppy - a 3.5 inch square rigid disk which holds data. (so named for the earlier 5.25 and 8 inch disks that were flexible).
folder - an electronic subdirectory which contains files.
font - a typeface that contains the characters of an alphabet or some other letterforms.
footprint - The surface area of a desk or table which is occupied by a piece of equipment.
fragmentation - The breaking up of a file into many separate locations in memory or on a disk.
freeze - a system error which causes the cursor to lock in place.
get info - a Finder File menu command that presents an information window for a selected file icon.
gig - a gigabyte = 1024 megabytes.
hard drive - a large capacity storage device made of multiple disks housed in a rigid case.
head crash - a hard disk crash caused by the heads coming in contact with the spinning disk(s).
high density disk - a 1.4 MB floppy disk.
highlight - to select by clicking once on an icon or by highlighting text in a document.
icon - a graphic symbol for an application, file or folder.
initialize - to format a disk for use in the computer; creates a new directory and arranges the tracks for the recording of data.
insertion point - in word processing, the short flashing marker which indicates where your next typing will begin.
installer - software used to install a program on your hard drive.
interrupt button - a tool used by programmers to enter the debugging mode. The button is usually next to the reset button.
K - short for kilobyte.
keyboard shortcut - a combination of keystrokes that performs some function otherwise found in a pulldown menu.
kilobyte - 1024 bytes.
landscape - in printing from a computer, to print sideways on the page.
launch - start an application.
Measurements (summary) -
*a bit = one binary digit (1 or 0) *"bit" is derived from the contraction b'it (binary digit) -> 8 bits = one byte
*1024 bytes = one kilobyte
*K = kilobyte
*Kb = kilobit
*MB = megabyte
*Mb = megabit
*MB/s = megabytes per second
*Mb/s = megabits per second
*bps = bits per second
i.e., 155 Mb/s = 19.38 MB/s

MB - short for megabyte.
megabyte - 1024 kilobytes.
memory - the temporary holding area where data is stored while it is being used or changed; the amount of RAM a computer has installed.
menu - a list of program commands listed by topic.
menu bar - the horizontal bar across the top of the Mac¹s screen that lists the menus.
multi finder - a component of System 6 that allows the Mac to multi task.
multi tasking - running more than one application in memory at the same time.
nanosecond - one billionth of a second. ( or, the time between the theatrical release of a Dudley Moore film and the moment it begins to play on airplanes).
native mode - using the computers original operating system; most commonly used when talking about the PowerPC can run software written for either the 80x0 systems, or the PowerPC¹s RISC code.
NuBus - expansion slots on the Mac which accept intelligent, self-configuring boards. NuBus is a different bus achitecture than the newer PCI bus and the boards are not interchangable.
operating system - the system software that controls the computer.
optical disk - a high-capacity storage medium that is read by a laser light.
palette - a small floating window that contains tools used in a given application.
partition - a subdivision of a hard drives surface that is defined and used as a separate drive.
paste - to insert text, or other material, from the clipboard or copy buffer.
PC - acronym for personal computer, commonly used to refer to an IBM or IBM clone computer which uses DOS.
PCI - acronym for Peripheral Component Interchange - the newer, faster bus achitecture.
peripheral - an add-on component to your computer.
point - (1/72") 12 points = one pica in printing.
pop-up menu - any menu that does not appear at the top of the screen in the menu bar. (may pop up or down)
port - a connection socket, or jack on the Mac.
Power PC - a processing chip designed by Apple, IBM and Motorola (RISC based).
Power Mac - a family of Macs built around the PowerPC chip.
print spooler - a program that stores documents to be printed on the hard drive, thereby freeing the memory up and allowing other functions to be performed while printing goes on in the background.
QuickTime - the Apple system extension that gives one the ability to compress, edit and play animation, movies and sound on the Mac.
RAM - acronym for Random-Access Memory.
reset switch - a switch on the Mac that restarts the computer in the event of a crash or freeze.
resize box - the small square at the lower right corner of a window which, when dragged, resizes the window.
RISC - acronym for Reduced Instruction Set Computing; the smaller set of commands used by the PowerPC and Power Mac.
ROM - acronym for Read Only Memory; memory that can only be read from and not written to.
root directory - the main hard drive window.
save - to write a file onto a disk.
save as - (a File menu item) to save a previously saved file in a new location and/or with a new name.
scroll - to shift the contents of a window to bring hidden items into view.
scroll bar - a bar at the bottom or right side of a window that contains the scroll box and allows scrolling.
scroll box - the box in a scroll bar that is used to navigate through a window.
SCSI - acronym for Small Computer System Interface.
SCSI address - a number between zero and seven that must be unique to each device in a SCSI chain. Fast and Wide SCSI devices will allow up to 15 SCSI Ids (hexidecimal); however, the length restriction (3 meters) is such that it is virtually impossible to link 15 devices together.
SCSI port - a 25 pin connector on the back of a Mac (native SCSI port); used to connect SCSI devices to the CPU. Some SCSI cards (like the ATTO) have a 68 pin connector.
SCSI terminator - a device placed at the end of a SCSI chain to complete the circuit. (some SCSI devices are self-terminating, or have active termination and do not require this plug).
serial port - a port that allows data to be transmitted in a series (one after the other), such as the printer and modem ports on a Mac.
server - a central computer dedicated to sending and receiving data from other computers (on a network).
shut down - the command from the Special menu that shuts down the Mac safely.
software - files on disk that contain instructions for a computer.
spreadsheet - a program designed to look like an electronic ledger.
start up disk - the disk containing system software and is designated to be used to start the computer.
surge suppressor - a power strip that has circuits designed to reduce the effects of surge in electrical power. (not the same as a UPS)
System file - a file in the System folder that allows your Mac to start and run.
System folder - an all-important folder that contains at least the System file and the Finder.
32 bit addressing - a feature that allows the Mac to recognize and use more than 8MB of memory.
title bar - the horizontal bar at the top of a window which has the name of the file or folder it represents.
upload - to send a file from one computer to another through a network.
Uninterruptible Power Source (UPS)- a constantly charging battery pack which powers the computer. A UPS should have enough charge to power your computer for several minutes in the event of a total power failure, giving you time to save your work and safely shut down.
UPS - acronym for Uninterruptible Power Source.
vaporware - "software" advertised, and sometimes sold, that does not yet exist in a releasable for.
virtual memory - using part of your hard drive as though it were "RAM".
WORM - acronym for Write Once-Read Many; an optical disk that can only be written to once (like a CD-ROM).
zoom box - a small square in the upper right corner of a window which, when clicked, will expand the window to fill the whole screen.

IBPS CLERKS EXAM PRACTICE MCQs

1. Which of the following statements about CHOGM 2011 is/are true?
1) The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting 2011, commonly known as CHOGM 2011, was held in Perth, Australia in October 2011.
2) The 22nd Meeting of the Heads of Government of the Commonwealth of Nations was chaired by Julia Gillard, the Prime Minister of Australia.
3) Hamid Ansari, the Vice President, represented India at the Summit.
4) Canadian Prime Minister Stephen Harper had threatened to boycott the 2013 CHOGM, to be held in Sri Lanka, if allegations of human rights abuses against the country's Tamil minority were not investigated.
5) All the statements are correct.

2. Muammar Qadhafi was killed in October 2011 in his hometown Sirte. He was the former leader of which of the following countries?
1) Tunisia
2) Egypt
3) Syria
4) Libya
5) Yemen

3. The Election Commission has disqualified Umlesh Yadav, an MLA from Uttar Pradesh, from contesting again for three years for suppressing expenditure (the amount spent for issuing the advertisements) in her election accounts. She is the first political victim of the paid news phenomenon. She was elected from which of the following political parties?
1) Rashtriya Janata Dal
2) Samajwadi Party
3) Rashtriya Parivartan Dal
4) Bharatiya Janata Party
5) Bahujan Samaj Party

4. Alain Juppe visited India in October 2011. He is the Minister for Foreign Affairs of which of the following countries?
1) Germany
2) Italy
3) United Kingdom
4) France
5) Spain

5. M.K.Mani has been honoured with the 40th Dhanvantari Award. In which of the following fields is this prestigious award given annually?
1) Print Journalism
2) Cinema
3) Architecture
4) Medical Science
 5) Literature

6. The South India's first metro rail service was started in which of the following cities in October 2011?
1) Chennai
2) Bangalore
3) Hyderabad
4) Cochin
5) None of these

7. Who is the Chairman of the Prime Minister's Economic Advisory Council (PMEAC)?
1) Bimal Jalan
2) Suresh Tendulkar
3) C.Rangarajan
4) Y.V.Reddy
5) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

8. Shakti-2011 is a joint army exercise between India and which of the following countries? (It was conducted in Uttarakhand in October 2011)
1) Sri Lanka
2) France
3) USA
4) China
5) Philippines

9. Who won the National Chess title in Aurangabad in October 2011?
1) Abhijeet Gupta
2) Deepan Chakkravarthy
3) S.P.Sethuraman
4) M.R.Venkatesh
5) Vidit Gujarathi

10. Who has been honoured with the Presidential Citizens Medal by U.S. President Barack Obama for her courage in overcoming and speaking out against domestic abuse in the Indian-American community?
1) Kavya Lahiri
2) Vijaya Emani
3) Kalpana Sen
4) Anuradha Sen
5) None of these

11. Which English cricketer is the author of the book 'The Breaks are off-My Autobiography'?
1) Kevin Pietersen
2) Graeme Swann
3) Alastair Cook
4) Ian Bell
5) Andrew Strauss

12. Who made history by winning the inaugural Formula One Indian Grand Prix at the Buddh International Circuit in Greater Noida in October 2011?
1) Sebastian Vettel
2) Jenson Button
3) Fernando Alonso
4) Mark Webber
5) Michael Schumacher

13. Who was re-appointed the Commonwealth Secretary- General for four more years in October 2011?
1) Don McKinnon
2) Arnold Smith
3) Kamalesh Sharma
4) Shridath Ramphal
5) None

14. Who received "The Hindu Lite-rary Prize for Best Fiction 2011" for his/her debut novel "The Sly Company of People Who Care" in October 2011?
1) N.S.Madhavan
2) Rahul Bhattacharya
3) Amitav Ghosh
4) Anuradha Roy
5) None

15. Who is the author of the book 'The TCS Story…and Beyond'?
1) Ratan Tata
2) N.Chandrasekaran
3) S.Ramadorai
4) N.R.Narayana Murty
5) Nandan Nilekani

16. The National Development Council (NDC) meeting was held in New Delhi recently. Who is the Chairman of the NDC?
1) Manmohan Singh
2) P.Chidambaram
3) Pranab Mukherjee
4) Sonia Gandhi
5) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

17. Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck visited India recently. He is the king of which of the following countries?
1) Nepal
2) Mauritius
3) Thailand
4) Bhutan
5) None of these

18. New Zealand won the Rugby World Cup in October 2011 after defeating which of the following countries in the final held in Auckland, New Zealand?
1) USA
2) UK
3) Canada
4) Australia
5) France

19. Ellen Johnson Sirleaf is one of the three recipients of the Nobel Peace Prize for 2011. She is the President of which of the following countries?
1) Yemen
2) Liberia
3) Rwanda
4) Sudan
5) Kenya

20. Who is considered as the father of the white revolution in India?
1) M.S.Swaminathan
2) H.G. Khorana
3) U.R.Rao
4) Verghese Kurien
5) None

21. Which of the following terms is used in the game of hockey?
1) Deuce
2) Penalty Corner
3) LBW
4) No Ball
5) Back Hand

22. Which city hosted the 5th IBSA Summit in October 2011?
1) Cape Town
2) Durban
3) Pretoria
4) Johannesburg
5) Bloemfontein

23. Who among the following leaders did not attend the IBSA Summit in October 2011?
1) Dilma Rousseff
2) Jacob Zuma
3) Manmohan Singh
4) Dmitri Medvedev
5) None of these

24. Who among as following has been elected the President of Kyrgyzstan? (He is the present Prime Minister)
1) Adakhan Madumarov
2) Kamchibek Tashiyev
3) Almazbek Atambayev
4) Nursultan Nazarbayev
5) None of these

25. Who was presented the Indira Gandhi Award for National Integration 2010 for his yeoman service in promoting and preserving the spirit of national integration on October 31, 2011, the death anniversary of Indira Gandhi?
1) Vijay Darda
2) Mohan Dharia
3) Jaipal Reddy
4) Pranab Mukherjee
5) A.K.Antony

26. Who headed the Committee on direct transfer of subsidies on Kerosene, LPG and Fertilizers to the beneficiaries?
1) Manmohan Singh
2) Pranab Mukherjee
3) C.Rangarajan
4) Nandan Nilekani
5) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

27. Which of the following programmes launched by the Government of India aims at enhancing the Livelihood security of the people in rural areas by guaranteeing hundred days of employment in a financial year to a rural household?
1) JNNURM
2) ASHA
3) Kutir Jyoyhi
4) Bharat Nirman
5) MGNREGS

28. Which of the following is the period of the first Five Year Plan in India?
1) 1950-55
2) 1947-52
3) 1951-56
4) 1948-53
5) None of these

29. What is the name of the scheme that was launched by the Government of India for adolescent girls in November 2010?
1) ASHA
2) Swabhiman
3) Swawalamban
4) SABALA
5) Aadhar

30. PIIGS is an acronym for nations of which of the following continents?
1) Asia
2) Africa
3) Europe
4)South America
5) North America

31. Who among the following has never worked as RBI Governor?
1) C.Rangarajan
2) Bimal Jalan
3) Manmohan Singh
4) L.K.Jha
5) Yashwant Sinha

32. Which bank has taken over the Centurion Bank of Punjab?
1) ICICI Bank
2) HDFC Bank
3) IDBI Bank
4) AXIS Bank
5) OBC

33. Which country is considered as the pioneer of Micro Finance?
1) India
 2) Pakistan
3) Bangladesh
4) Sri Lanka
5) China

Answers
1) 5 2) 4 3) 3 4) 4 5) 4 6) 2 7) 3 8) 2 9) 1 10) 2 11) 2 12) 1 13) 3 14) 2 15) 3 16) 1 17) 4 18) 5 19) 2 20) 4 21) 2 22) 3 23) 4 24) 3 25) 2 26) 4 27) 5 28) 3 29) 4 30) 3 31) 5 32) 2 33) 3

IBPS CLERKS EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Reasoning Ability

1. '2' is subtracted from each even digit and '1' is added to each odd digit in the number 7652348. Which of the following will be the difference of the second digit from the right and the third digit from the left of the new number thus formed?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 4

(D) 6

(E) 3

Ans: (C)

2. In a certain code 'RAISE' is coded as 'FTJBS' and 'LEASE' is coded as 'F'TBFM'. How will 'FLOWN' be coded in the same code?

(A) OXPMG

(B) OPMXG

(C) OGMXP

(D) MGOXP

(E) MGPOX

Ans: (A)

3. Rajesh correctly remembers that his friend Sanjay started working after April but before September. Vinod correctly remembers that Sanjay did not have a job before May. Madan correctly remembers that the month Sanjay started working had 31 days. In which month of the year did Sanjay definitely start working?

(A) July

(B) Either August or July

(C) August

(D) Either August or June

(E) June

Ans: (B)

Directions-(Q.4-6) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seen to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer-

(A) If only conclusion I follows.

(B) If only conclusion II follows.

(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.

4. Statements:

Some black are blue.

Some blue are white.

Some white are black.

Conclusions :

I. Some black are both blue and white.

II. Some white are both black and blue.

Ans: (E)

5. Statements:

Some actors are dancers.

Some dancers are musicians.

No musicians are painters.

Conclusions :

I. Some painters are actors.

II. No painter is a dancer.

Ans: (D)

6. Statements:

All children are students.

All students are adults.

All adults are workers.

Conclusions :

I. Atleast some workers are students.

II. All children are adults.

Ans: (E)

Directions-(Q.7-9) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below-

A, B, C, D, P, Q, Rand S are sitting around a circle not tacinq the centre. (They face opposite of the centre). P is third to the left of A and R is second to the right of A. Q is not an immediate neighbour of either P or R. C sits third to the right of B and S sits exactly between C and R.

7. Who sits between P and S ?

(A) D    

(B) R

(C) C    

(D) A

(E) Q

Ans: (C)

8. How many persons sit between A and P when counted in anti- clockwise direction from A ?

(A) One    

(B) Two

(C) Three    

(D) Four

(E) Five

Ans: (B)

9. What is S's position with respect to D ?

(A) Secondtotheleft

(B) Third to the right

(C) Third to the left

(D) Immediate right

(E) Fourth to the right

Ans: (C)

English Language

Directions-(Q.10-12) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them .

1 . He walked up to his teacher and asked "Why does one die, Master ?"

2. "The time has come for your vase to die".

3. "Its natural," said the teacher. "Everything has a beginning and an end."

4. A young student happened to break a precious vase belonging to his teacher.

5. When he heard his teacher's footsteps, he quickly hid the broken vase behind him.

6. The student then, held out the pieces of the broken vase saying.

10. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?

(A) 3    

(B) 4

(C) 6    

(D) 1

(E) 5

Ans: (B)

11. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?

(A) 2    

(B) 3

(C) 5    

(D) 1

(E) 6

Ans: (C)

12. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?

(A) 1    

(B) 5

(C) 2    

(D) 6

(E) 3

Ans: (E)

Directions-(Q.13-16) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

13. My name is Rahul / and I am coming / from a beautiful state /in India. No error
              (A)                   (B)                             (C)                     (D)         (E)

Ans: (B)

14. If you want to / keep good health / you must eats / a lot of vegetables. No error
              (A)                   (B)                     (C)                      (D)                  (E)

Ans: (C)

15. In recent months, / a large number of equipments / has been steal/from construction sites. No error
               (A)                                    (B)                                 (C)               (D)                      (E)

Ans: (C)

16. The Indian Government's / primary goal/is to reduction / of poverty. No error
                (A)                              (B)              (C)                (D)             (E)

Ans: (C)

Directions-(Q.17-21) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Vishnu Raman was an Indian magistrate who lived about a hundred years ago. He was famed for the fairness of his judgements. One day while the magistrate was walking through the market he saw a crowd outside a poultry shop. On enquiring what the matter was he learnt that a worker had accidentally dropped a heavy sack on a chicken, crushing it to death. The chicken was small, worth only about five rupees, but the owner of the shop had caught the worker by his throat and was demanding a hundred rupees. His argument was that the chicken would have grown into a plump bird in another two years and then it would have fetched him the amount he was asking for. Somebody in the crowd recognized the magistrate, and everybody made way for him.

"Judge our case, your honour !" said the owner of the chicken, letting go of the worker and bowing respectfully to the magistrate. "This man, through his carelessness has caused the death of a chicken that would have fetched me a hundred coins in another two years !" Fear had made the worker's speech incoherent. Nobody could understand what he was saying. "The price put on the chicken is hundred rupees," said the magistrate, to the worker. "I advise you to pay the owner." There was a gasp from the crowd. Everybody had expected the magistrate to favour the poor worker. The owner of the chicken was overjoyed. "They said you were fair in your judgements" he said, rubbing his hands in glee, "now I can say there is no one fairer than you !"

"The Law is always fair," smiled the magistrate. "Tell me, how much grain a chicken would eat in a year ?" "About half a sack," said the poultry shop owner. "So in two years the chicken who died would have eaten a whole sack of grain," said Vishnu Raman. "Please give the sack of grain you've saved to the worker." The chicken owner turned pale. A sack of grain would cost more than hundred rupees. Frightened by the shouts from the crowd, he declared he would not take any money from the worker, and retreated into the safety of his shop in the end.

17. What was Vishnu Raman well known for?

(A) He was well known for his respectable position

(B) He was well known for his honesty

(C) He was well known for his fairness of judgement

(D) He was well known for time management

(E) None of these

Ans: (C)

18. Why was the owner asked to give a sack of grain to the worker?

(A) The worker could not afford grain

(B) The worker had purchased the sack of grain

(C) The worker did not get paid for his services

(D) A sack of grain was equal to a hundred rupees

(E) He would have saved on a sack of grain

Ans: (E)

19. In the end, the owner turned pale because-

1. The magistrate was being unjust.

2. He realised that he was being cheated.

3. The magistrate asked him to give the worker a sack of grain.

(A) Only 1    

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3    

(D) Only 1 and 2

(E) Only 2 and 3

Ans: (C)

20. Why was the owner of the shop initially overjoyed with the magistrate's judgement ?

(A) The magistrate asked the worker to pay him a hundred rupees

(B) He was fond of the magistrate

(C) He did not expect the magistrate to favour the worker

(D) He could now buy another chicken

(E) The law is always fair

Ans: (A)

21. What was the commotion in the market about ?

(A) The worker quitting his job

(B) The shop owner beating the magistrate

(C) The magistrate's visit to the market

(D) The death of a chicken

(E) The missing money from the owner's shop

Ans: (D)

Directions-(Q.22-23) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage-

22. Accidentally

(A) Deliberately

(B) Mistakenly

(C) Erroneously

(D) Cautiously

(E) Hastily

Ans: (B)

23. Fair

(A) Brilliant    

(B) Good

(C) Honest    

(D) Unjust

(E) Clever

Ans: (D)

Directions-(Q.24-26) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete-

24. Most of the people who .......... the book exhibition were teachers.

(A) witnessed

(B) presented

(C) conducted

(D) held

(E) attended

Ans: (E)

25. The frequent errors are a result of the student's .................

(A) talent

(B) smartness

(C) carelessness

(D) perception

(E) destructiveness

Ans: (C)

26. I finally.......... her to stay another day.

(A) advised    

(B) persuaded

(C) suggested

(D) called

(E) tortured
Ans: (B)

Numerical Ability

Directions-(Q.27-29) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series ?

27. 343, 350, 336, 357, 329, ? , 322

(A) 354    

(B) 364

(C) 368    

(D) 362

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)

28. 27, 28, 32, 41, 57, 82, ?

(A) 116    

(B) 112

(C) 118    

(D) 119

(E) 117

Ans: (C)

29. 33, 38, ? , 63, 83, 108

(A) 47    

(B) 46

(C) 43    

(D) 48

(E) 49

Ans: (D)

Directions-(Q.30-35) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

30. 958 x 63 ÷ 3² = ?

(A) 7606    

(B) 6706

(C) 6760    

(D) 6607

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)

31. 58² - 8² = 300 + ?

(A) 3000    

(B) 3300

(C) 3030    

(D) 3003

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)

32. 791.52 + 463.88 - 540.25 = ?

(A) 725.25    

(B) 711.11

(C) 735.35    

(D) 715.15

(E) None of these

Ans: (D)

33. 6⁵ x 36² x 1296 = 6^?

(A) 13    

(B) 12

(C) 14    

(D) 11

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)

34. √576 + √841 = √?

(A) 2890    

(B) 2098

(C) 2909    

(D) 2809

(E) None of these

Ans: (D)

35. (69.3 x 15.2) + (4.5 x 19.8) = ?

(A) 1142.46    

(B) 1152.46

(C) 1412.46    

(D) 1124.46

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)

Directions-(Q.36-37) In each of these questions an equation is given with a question mark (?) in place of the correct figure on the right hand side which satisfies the equality. Based on the values on the left hand side and the symbol of equality given, you have to decide which of the following figures will satisfy the equality and thus come in place of the question mark.

Symbol     stand for :
     >        greater than
     =        equal to
     <        lesser than
     ≥        either greater than or equal to
     ≤        either lesser than or equal to

36. ± [(5 x 3) + (57 ÷ 3)] ÷ ?

(A) 35    

(B) 33

(C) - 34    

(D) 34

(E) 31

Ans: (C)

37. (√64 + 456) ÷ 8 < ?

(A) 53    

(B) - 58

(C) 57.9    

(D) 56

(E) 59

Ans: (E)

38. The ratio between Priti's and Asha's ages is 9 : 13 respectively. 8 years ago the ratio between their ages was 7: 11 respectively. What is Priti's present age?

(A) 36 years

(B) 52 years

(C) 43 years

(D) 49 years

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)

39. The average of five numbers is 371.8. The average of the first and second number is 256.5 and the average of the fourth and fifth number is 508. Which of the following is the third number?

(A) 360    

(B) 310

(C) 430    

(D) 380

(E) 330

Ans: (E)

40. The average speed of a bus is 67 km per hour. The bus was scheduled to start at 12 pm. It was scheduled to reach a destination 335 km away from its starting point at 7 pm and a halt was scheduled on the way. For how long was the halt scheduled ?

(A) 3 hours

(B) 2 hours

(C) 1 hour

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)

41. Oisha scored 35 marks in Geography, 32 marks in History, 29 marks in Science, 40 marks in Mathematics, 36 marks in English and 33 marks in Hindi. The maximum marks in each subject are 50. What is Oisha's approximate percentage ?

(A) 68    

(B) 63

(C) 58    

(D) 53

(E) 76

Ans: (A)

Directions- (Q.42-44) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

(Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value)

42. 12.93 x 78.78 ÷ 10.95 = ?

(A) 40    

(B) 120

(C) 110    

(D) 60

(E) 90

Ans: (E)

43. 798 ÷ 27 x 0.66 = ?

(A) 40    

(B) 50

(C) 10    

(D) 30

(E) 20

Ans: (E)

44. 13.08 x 19.901 ÷ 17.05 = ?

(A) 25    

(B) 35

(C) 55    

(D) 15

(E) 45

Ans: (D)

Compute Knowledge

45. In word you can force a page break-

(A) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key

(B) By using the Insert/Section Break

(C) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl + Enter

(D) By changing the font size of your document

(E) None of these

Ans: (C)

46. Junk e-mail is also called-

(A) spam

(B) spoof

(C) sniffer script

(D) spool

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)

47. Hackers-

(A) all have the same motive

(B) break into other people's computers

(C) may legally break into computers as long as they do not do any damage

(D) are people who are allergic to computers

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)

48. What type of computers are client computers (most of the time) in a client-server system ?

(A) Mainframe

(B) Mini-computer

(C) Microcomputer

(D) PDA

(E) None of these

Ans: (C)

49. A computer cannot 'boot' if it does not have the-

(A) Compiler

(B) Loader

(C) Operating System

(D) Assembler

(E) None of these

Ans: (C)

50. The amount of vertical space between lines of text in a document is called-

(A) double-space

(B) line spacing

(C) single space

(D) vertical spacing

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)

51. Example of non-numeric data is-

(A) Employee address

(B) Examination score

(C) Bank balance

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)

52. What is embedded system ?

(A) The programme which arrives by being wrapped in box.

(B) The programme which is the permanent part of the computer

(C) The computer which is the part of a big computer

(D) The computer and software system that control the machine

(E) None of these

Ans: (D)

53. First page of Website is termed as-

(A) Homepage

(B) Index

(C) JAVA script

(D) Bookmark

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)

54. ..................... is the appearance of typed characters.

(A) Size    

(B) Format

(C) Point    

(D) Colour

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)

55. When a file is saved for the first time-

(A) a copy is automatically printed

(B) it must be given a name to identify it

(C) it does not need a name

(D) it only needs a name if it is not going to be printed

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)

56. Office LANS, which are scattered geographically on large scale, can be connected by the use of corporate-

(A) CAN

(B) LAN

(C) DAN

(D) WAN

(E) TAN

Ans: (D)

57. Where are data and programme stored when the processor uses them ?

(A) Main memory

(B) Secondary memory

(C) Disk memory

(D) Programme memory

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)

58. ............... represents raw facts, where- as ................. is data made meaningful.

(A) Information, reporting

(B) Data, information

(C) Information, bits

(D) Records, bytes

(E) Bits, bytes

Ans: (B)

59. Which keystroke will take you at the beginning or the end of a long document ?

(A) Ctrl + PageUp and Ctrl + PageOown

(B) Shift + Home and Shift + End

(C) Ctrl + Home and Ctrl + End

(D) The only way is by using the right scroll bar

(E) None of these

Ans: (C)

60. What characteristic of read-only memory (ROM) makes it useful ?

(A) ROM information can be easily updated.

(B) Data in ROM is nonvolatile, that is, it remains there even without electrical power.

(C) ROM provides very large amounts of inexpensive data storage.

(D) ROM chips are easily swapped between different brands of computers.

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)

General Awareness

61. India and Sri Lanka signed a MoU on 20 July 2011 to develop the __port.

(A) Kankesanthurai

(B) Hambantota

(C) Oluvil

(D) Port of Point Pedro

Ans: (A)

62. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) proposed to create regulations for alternative investment funds under the title SEBI (Alternative Investment Fund) Regulations on 1 August 2011. With regard to the statement which of the following is/are not true?

1.    Alternative investment fund raise capital from a number of high networth investors to invest in accordance with a defined investment policy for the benefit of those investors.

2.    SEBI made it optional for all types of private pools of capital or investment funds to seek registration with SEBI.

3.    For PE funds, investments would be mainly in unlisted companies or companies proposed to be listed.

4.    For infrastructure equity funds, minimum half of the investment would have to be in equity of infrastructure projects/companies.

(A) 1 & 4

(B) 2 & 3

(C) 1 & 3

(D) 2 & 4

Ans: (A)

63. Who took charge as Chairman of the Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd, Visakhapatnam steel plant (RINL-VSP) on 31 July 2011?

(A) A.P. Choudhary

(B) P.K. Bishnoi

(C) N.K Mishra

(D) Binayak Mishra

Ans: (A)

64. Who is the five-time national champion from Tamil Nadu who won the final in the National billiards and snooker championship on 25 July 2011?

(A) Vidya Pillai Tilakraj

(B) Arantxa Sanchis

(C) Neena Praveen

(D) Suniti Damani

Ans: (A)

65. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a bid to tame inflationary pressure hiked the short-term indicative policy rate (repo rate) by 50 basis points on 26 July 2011. The repo rate currently stands at what percentage?

(A) 7%

(B) 7.5%

(C) 8%

(D) 8.5%

Ans: (C)

66. Name the public sector lender that selected Metlife as its partner for a proposed foray into the life insurance segment.

(A) Syndicate Bank

(B) Punjab National Bank

(C) Corporation Bank

(D) United Bank of India

Ans: (B)

67. World Investment Report 2011 was released by UNCTAD on 26 July 2011. According to the report, what is India’s position among the top 20 Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) recipients?

(A) 8th

(B) 10th

(C)  14th

(D) 4th

Ans: (C)

68. The Union Cabinet Approved National Social Security Fund for Unorganised Sectors. The fund is likely to benefit __crore workers in the unorganized sector.

(A) 43.3

(B) 35.6

(C) 34

(D) 20.5

Ans: (A)

69. The Union government on 26 July 2011 announced restoration of the popular duty entitlement pass book (DEPB) scheme for export of cotton. Which of the following is/are not true with regard to the following?

1. Restoration of the popular duty entitlement pass book (DEPB) scheme was announced for export of cotton with retrospective effect from 1 April 2011 and on cotton yarn from 1 October 2010.

2. Cotton yarn had been placed under Open General Licence for exports from 1 October 2011.

3. Exports of cotton were dis-incentivised by virtue of export tax, following a sharp rise in prices in January 2011.

4. Restrictions continue to remain on export of cotton, that is, 65 lakh bales this year.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C)  Both 1 & 2

(D) Only 4

Ans: (B)

70. Which one of the following became the first Baltic nation to Sign a double taxation avoidance agreement with India?

(A) Lithuania

(B) Spain

(C) Estonia

(D) Poland

Ans: (A)

71. Who did the Union government appoint on 23 July 2011 as the Solicitor-General, the second senior most law officer of India?

(A) Fali S Nariman

(B) Rohinton Nariman

(C) Gopal Subramanium

(D) Harish Salve

Ans: (B)

72. Saturn has __ moons.

(A) 62

(B) 45

(C) 34

(D) 2

Ans: (A)

73. India accepted international norms for the prevention of air pollution emanating from ships. The norms were proposed under a 1997 protocol of the International Maritime Organisation(IMO). When was IMO established?

(A) 1948

(B) 1997

(C) 1982

(D) 1937

Ans: (A)